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Figure 13-2 — Chain reaction. Figure 13-3 — Fire tetrahedron and triangle. Two terms you need to understand about fires are the fire point and the flash point. The fire point of a substance is the lowest temperature at which its vapors can be ignited and will continue to burn. At this temperature, the vapor will ignite spontaneously in the air. Also, substances do not have to be heated to this ignition temperature throughout in order to ignite. The flash point of a substance is the temperature at which the substance gives off enough vapors to form an ignitable mixture with the air near the substance's surface. An ignitable mixture is a mixture within the explosive range. The mixture is capable of spreading a flame away from the source of ignition when ignited. For example, fuel will spontaneously ignite when a portion of it (or its vapors) is exposed to temperatures around 500 degrees Fahrenheit (°F) (ignition temperature). It is capable of being touched off by a match or spark at temperatures down to -5 °F (fire point). It will also flash across the surface at temperatures from −5 °F down to −45 °F (flash point). From these examples, you can readily see that fuel has a low flash point and is easily ignited. Fuel is a constant fire hazard around aircraft. A spark, heat caused by friction, or an electrical discharge can supply enough heat to cause fuel to flash. Classes of Fire Different types of fires are combated by different means. It is important that you know how to identify the various types of fires and understand why each type must be combated in a specific way. 13-2
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Class A Class A fires occur in combustible materials, such as bedding, mattresses, books, cloth, and any matter that produces an ash. All fires of this class leave embers, which are likely to rekindle if air comes in contact with them. Class A fires must not be considered extinguished until the entire mass has been cooled below its ignition temperature. Smothering (removing the oxygen) is not effective for class A fires because it does not lower the temperature of the smoldering embers below the surface. The extinguishing agents most effective for class A fires are solid water stream, both high- and low- velocity fog, carbon dioxide (CO2), and water immersion. Class B Class B fires occur with flammable liquid substances, such as gasoline, jet fuels, paints, grease, and any petroleum-based product. These and other combustible substances do not leave embers or ashes. Class B fires are extinguished by providing a barrier between the burning substance and oxygen necessary for combustion. Chemical and mechanical foams produce such a barrier and are known as permanent smothering agents, but their effect is only temporary. The application must be renewed if there is any danger of reigniting. The extinguishing agents recommended for combating class B fires are CO2, Purple-K-Powder (PKP), Halon 1211, and aqueous film-forming foam (AFFF).
Class C Class C fires are energized electrical fires that are attacked at prescribed distances by using nonconductive agents such as CO2 and Halon 1211. The most effective tactic is to de-energize the system and handle the fire as a class A fire. When fires are not deep seated, clean agents that pose no cleanup problem, such as Halon 1211 or CO2, are the preferred extinguishing agents.
Class D Class D fires occur with combustible metals, such as magnesium and titanium. Water in large quantities, such as high velocity fog, is the recommended extinguishing agent. When water is applied to burning class D materials, there may be small explosions. The firefighter should apply water from a safe distance or from behind shelter. Metal fires on board ships are commonly associated with aircraft wheel structures. EXTINGUISHING AGENTS Many materials may be used as firefighting agents. The primary agents discussed in the following paragraphs are the most extensively used aboard naval ships. Water Water is a cooling agent (Figure 13-4), and on board ship, the sea provides an inexhaustible supply. If the surface temperature of a fire can be lowered below the fuel's ignition temperature, the fire will NOTE Water by itself is NOT recommended for use on class B fires. WARNING Water in any form, particularly salt water, is dangerous when used on electrical equipment. 13-3
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Figure 13-4 — Water. Figure 13-5 — AFFF. Figure 13-6 — CO2. be extinguished. Water is most efficient when it absorbs enough heat to raise its temperature to 212 °F (100 degrees Celsius [°C]) or boiling point. At this temperature, the seawater will absorb still more heat until it changes to steam. The steam carries away the heat, which cools the surface temperature. Water in the form of fog is very effective for firefighting purposes. Additionally, water fog can provide protection to firefighters from heat. However, the fog must be applied directly to the area to be cooled if its benefits are to be realized. Water in the form of a straight stream (also called solid stream) is used to reach into smoke-filled spaces or areas at a distance from the firefighter. When a straight stream is needed as an extinguishing agent, it should be directed into the seat of the fire. For maximum cooling, the water must come in direct contact with the burning material. A straight stream is best used to break up and penetrate materials. Aqueous Film-Forming Foam (AFFF) AFFF is composed of synthetically produced materials similar to liquid detergents. These film-forming agents are capable of forming water solution films on the surface of flammable liquids (Figure 13-5). AFFF concentrate is nontoxic and biodegradable in diluted form. When proportioned with water, AFFF provides three fire-extinguishing advantages. 1. An aqueous film is formed on the surface of the fuel that prevents the escape of the fuel vapors. 2. The layer effectively excludes oxygen from the fuel surface. 3. The water content of the foam provides a cooling effect. The primary use of AFFF is to extinguish burning flammable or combustible liquid spill fires (class B). AFFF has excellent penetrating characteristics and is superior to water in extinguishing class A fires. Carbon Dioxide (CO2) CO2 is an inert gas and extinguishes fires by smothering them (Figure 13-6). CO2 is about 13-4
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Figure 13-7 — Halon 1211. Figure 13-8 — PKP. 1.5 times heavier than air, which makes it a suitable extinguishing agent because it tends to settle and blanket the fire. CO2 is a dry, noncorrosive gas, which is inert when in contact with most substances and will not leave a residue or damage machinery or electrical equipment. CO2 is a nonconductor of electricity regardless of voltage and can be safely used in fighting fires that would present the hazard of electric shock. CO2 extinguishes the fire by diluting and displacing its oxygen supply. If gaseous CO2 is directed into a fire so that sufficient oxygen to support combustion is no longer available, the flames will die out. CO2 has limited cooling capabilities and may not cool the fuel below its ignition temperature. It is more likely than other extinguishing agents to allow reflash. Therefore, the firefighter must remember to stand by with additional backup extinguishers.
Halon 1211 Halon is a halogenated hydrocarbon (Figure 13-7). Halon 1211, known chemically as bromochlorodifluoromethane, is colorless and has a sweet smell. Halon attacks the fire by inhibiting the chemical chain reaction. Halon decomposes upon contact with flames or hot surfaces above 900 °F (482 °C). Halon 1211 is used for twin agent (AFFF/Halon 1211) applications on board flight and hangar deck mobile firefighting equipment. For flight and hangar deck firefighting procedures, you should refer to NATOPS, U.S. Navy Aircraft Firefighting and Rescue Manual, NAVAIR 00-80R-14. Potassium Bicarbonate (Purple-K- Powder or PKP) Potassium bicarbonate (PKP) is a dry chemical principally used as a firefighting agent for flammable liquid fires (Figure 13-8). When PKP is applied to fire, the dry chemical extinguishes the flame by breaking the combustion chain. PKP does not have cooling capabilities on fire. PKP is highly effective in extinguishing flammable liquid (class B) fires. Although PKP can be used on electrical (class C) fires, it will leave a residue that may be hard to NOTE CO2 is not an effective extinguishing agent for fires in materials that produce their own oxygen supply, such as aircraft parachute flares, or fires involving reactive metals, such as magnesium and titanium. 13-5
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Figure 13-9 — Typical firehose station. clean. Also, when combined with moisture, it may corrode or stain the surfaces on which it settles. PKP does not produce a lasting inert atmosphere above the surface of a flammable liquid. Therefore, its use will not result in permanent extinguishing if ignition sources, such as hot metal surfaces or persistent electrical arcing, are present. Reflash of the fire will most likely occur. The ingredients used in PKP are nontoxic. However, the discharge of large quantities may cause temporary breathing difficulty and, immediately after the discharge, may seriously interfere with visibility. FIREFIGHTING EQUIPMENT In assisting the crash firefighters, you will use very specialized equipment. A crash crew must bring its equipment into action with every pump nozzle delivering at its maximum capacity. Firefighting equipment is discussed in the following paragraphs. Firemain System You must get acquainted with the firemain system throughout your ship. You should know the location of the firemain and the riser piping that carries water to the upper decks. You must be able to identify the plugs where hoses can be attached to the mains. You must know the location of all pumps, valves, and controls in the vicinity of your duty and berthing stations. Fireplugs have outlets either 1 1/2 or 2 1/2 inches in diameter. Some plugs are equipped with wye gates that provide two outlets, each 1 1/2 inches in size. In some cases, a reducing connection is used so that a 1 1/2-inch hose can be attached to a 2 1/2-inch outlet. Connected to the fireplugs and stored in adjacent racks are two lengths of either 1 1/2- or 2 1/2-inch diameter hose. The 1 1/2-inch hose is used on smaller ships and below decks on larger ships. This hose is made up in 50-foot lengths, with the necessary end couplings. All threaded parts of firehose fittings and couplings have standard threads and are easy to connect. Hoses and fittings 1 1/2 inches and below have standard pipe threads. Those 2 1/2 inches and over have standard Navy hose threads. Two people working together can quickly prepare a firehose. You can do the job alone if you place the hose on the deck and hold it down with your foot just behind the fitting. The pressure of your foot will cause the metal fitting on the end of the hose to point upward. In this position you can screw in the nozzle or other fitting. Firehose is usually located on a bulkhead rack near a fireplug. Nozzles, extensions called applicators, and spanner wrenches are stowed on the bulkhead near the hose See Figure 1 3-9. When two lines are located separately on the bulkhead, one is connected to the firemain and the other is left unconnected. 13-6
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Figure 13-10 —AFFF hose reel. High-Capacity AFFF Systems An AFFF station consists of a 600-gallon AFFF concentrate tank, a single-speed injection pump or a two-speed AFFF pump, electrical controllers, valves, and necessary piping. Saltwater and AFFF flow is controlled by hydraulically operated valves, which are actuated by solenoid-operated pilot valves (SOPVs). The SOPVs are activated by electrical switches at user locations Primary Flight (Pri-Fly), Navigational Bridge (NAVBRIDGE), hose stations, and conflagration (CON-FLAG) stations. The injection pump system supplies the flush eck nozzles on the flight deck, and the deck edge nozzles on Carrier Vessel Nuclear (CVNs). The two-speed pump operates at 27 or 65 gallons per minute (gpm), depending upon the demand. The low-rate output will supply handlines and small sprinkler systems. High-demand systems, such as hangar bay sprinklers, are served by the high- speed output. On selected CVs, the two-speed pump supplies the deck edge nozzles. Hangar Deck AFFF Sprinkler System The AFFF sprinkler systems are installed in the overhead of the hangar deck. The sprinkler system is divided into groups that can be individually actuated. Each group is supplied from two risers— one from a port AFFF injection station and one from a starboard AFFF injection station. Controls to start and stop flow to individual sprinkler groups are located in the CONFLAG stations and along each side of the hangar deck near the related sprinkler group. Flight Deck AFFF Extinguishing System Flight decks have an AFFF firefighting system that consists of flush-deck, flush-deck cannon-type, and deck-edge nozzles installed in combination with the saltwater washdown system. AFFF from the concentrate tank is injected into the saltwater (injection point is on the 03 level just downstream of the saltwater control valve) via a positive displacement pump, usually 60 gpm. This injection pump serves the flush-deck and cannon-type nozzles. Deck edge nozzles may be served by the AFFF two-speed pump system or single-speed injection pump system. Controls for the flight deck fixed fire-extinguishing system are located in both Pri-Fly and on the NAVB RIDGE. The controls allow for selection of saltwater AFFF or system shutdown. AFFF Hose Reel Station Hangar bay AFFF hose outlets are located port and starboard near the AFFF injection stations from which they are supplied. A push-button control is located adjacent to each AFFF hose station. The station has a 1 1/2-inch hose reel and one 2 1/2- inch hose outlet (Figure 13-10). Flight deck AFFF hose outlets are located in catwalks and near the island. The station has one reel of 1 1/2-inch hose and/or one 2 1/2-inch hose outlet or two 2 1/2-inch hose outlets with hose and nozzle preconnected to each outlet. A push-button control, X50J phone circuit box, and E call button are located next to each AFFF hose station. There is emergency lighting at each hose reel station. The controls are located in Pri-Fly and on the NAVB RIDGE.
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Figure 13-11 — Variable-stream fog nozzle. Figure 13-12 — Crash and rescue toolkit. Portable Firefighting Equipment As you become more familiar with aircraft firefighting tactics and equipment, you will become more familiar with the many different types of portable equipment that the firefighter uses to combat and contain aircraft fires. Some of the equipment you will use is discussed in this section. Vari-Nozzles Vari-nozzles are used on all AFFF and saltwater hose lines. Flow rates are 250 gpm for all 2 1/2-inch hose lines. Nozzles on 1 1/2-inch AFFF hoses on flight and hangar decks are the 125-gpm units. Nozzles on the 1 1/2-inch saltwater lines and those used with AFFF in-line inductors are 95-gpm models. All nozzle gpm flow rates are based on 100-pounds per square inch (psi) pressure at the nozzle inlet. See Figure 13-11. Hoses The standard Navy firehose is a double-jacketed, synthetic fiber with a rubber or similar elastomeric lining. The outer jacket is impregnated to increase wear resistance. The impregnating material contains an orange-colored pigmentation for easy identification. Navy firehose comes in 50-foot lengths and has a maximum operating pressure of 270 psi. Optimum hose handling occurs between 90 and 150 psi. Pressure above 150 psi is hazardous because excessive nozzle reaction force may result in loss of nozzle control. Noncollapsible rubber hose for the AFFF hose reel system is available in 3/4-inch and 1 1/2-inch size. The length of these hoses varies in size depending upon application and location. Tools A firefighter's toolkit should contain the following tools: Large claw tool; small claw tool Crowbar Parachute knife Pliers; screwdriver Wrench Hacksaw; metal saw Chisels Flashlight Carpenter's hammer; maul Bolt cutters Notched ax Naval Air Systems Command (NAVAIRSYSCOM) developed what is called an aircraft toolkit (Figure 13-12) for crash trucks. The station fire chief must ensure that one of these kits is carried on each of 13-8
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the crash trucks assigned to the firefighting crew. The kit consists of a canvas tool roll with pockets or holders for specified tools. The crash kit contains tools for forced entry. Firefighters use these tools in rescuing occupants trapped in aircraft. The kit contains three tapered, hard-rubber plugs and three hardwood plugs. These plugs are used to stop fuel tank leaks. Protective Clothing Aircraft firefighting/rescue protective clothing is a prime safety consideration for personnel engaged in firefighting and rescue work. Aluminized protective clothing offers protection to fire fighters because of its high percentage of reflectivity to radiant heat. Aluminized proximity fabrics have been adopted for use in the Navy Mishap/Rescue Program. It is important to point out that these garments are not classified as entry suits, but are known as proximity clothing to be worn with firefighters’ knee-length boots that have safety toes and soles. Care and Maintenance of Protective Clothing The heat-reflective ability of aluminized clothing is reduced when the clothing is stained or otherwise soiled. Therefore, you must give careful attention to the care and maintenance instructions for protective clothing. Some guidelines are as follows: Store clothing on hangers with suitable hanging space to prevent aluminized fabrics from creasing or cracking. If the garment is folded, the folds should be loose. Do not sit on a folded garment. Sponge off dirt and soot by using mild soap and water. Dry aluminum surfaces with a clean cloth. Rub gently to avoid removal of the aluminum. Remove grease stains by using dry-cleaning solvents. Remove AFFF by sponging the clothing clean with mild soap and water. Hang the garment to dry in the open or in a place with good circulation. During firefighting operations, it is not always possible to prevent firefighting agents from getting on protective clothing. However, aluminized protective clothing that has been covered or spotted with agents will have less heat-reflecting ability than the suit normally would provide.
Corrosive chemicals will react with the aluminum surface and may etch the metal. Clean the clothing with water and wipe it dry. Allow it to hang in a ventilated location at room temperature. Replace garments when the aluminum wears off or when the fabric cracks or tears. Spraying worn clothing with aluminum serves no useful purpose and is a dangerous practice. Care of Facepiece The gold-coated facepiece is a heat-reflective shield. The facepiece is NOT a sun shield. This item should be kept in excellent condition to maintain the radiant-heat-reflective efficiency. When the gold surface of the facepiece becomes worn, scratched, or marred, 90 percent of the heat protection is lost, and you should immediately replace the facepiece. Other precautions you should take with facepieces are as follows: NOTE Isopropanol or perchloroethylene will react with the metal in proximity suits and may etch the aluminum surface. Clean the clothing with water and wipe dry. Allow the garment to hang in a ventilated location at room temperature. 13-9
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Figure 13-13 — T-3000 aircraft firefighting rescue vehicle. Keep the protective cover in place when you are carrying or storing the hood to minimize damage to the gold-coated surface. Remove it when using the hood. For adequate protection, replace a worn gold-coated facepiece. When wearing the facepiece, make sure the gold surface is on the outside as marked on the edge. Avoid touching or wiping the gold surface as much as possibl e. Clean the facepiece, without removing it from the hood, by using a clean, soft cloth with mild soapy water, and then rinse and pat dry. AIRCRAFT FIREFIGHTING AND RESCUE VEHICLES The Navy uses different types of trucks. The use depends on the base, type of aircraft assigned, and anticipated types of fires. Some of the trucks used by the Navy are the Oshkosh T-3000 firefighting/rescue vehicle, and the P-25 shipboard firefighting truck. Oshkosh T-3000 The Oshkosh T-3000 (Figure 13-13) is a diesel-powered, six- wheel-drive truck with an automatic transmission. The operator controls consist of power-assisted steering, air or mechanical brakes, transmission range selector, and in-cab controls for operating the firefighting system. The water storage tank has a capacity of 3,000 the AFFF concentrate tank holds 420 gallons. The roof turret has a discharge rate of 600 to 1,200 gpm and an infinitely variable pattern from straight stream to fully dispersed. The bumper turret is electric joystick controlled with auto-oscillation. The discharge rate is 300 gpm, and it is also variable pattern. Two 15-feet, 1 3/4-inch preconnected handlines are provided, one per side. The handlines have a discharge rate of 95 gpm and have a pistol grip with variable pattern. A/S32P-25 Shipboard Firefighting Vehicle The P-25 shipboard firefighting vehicle (Figure 13-14) is a 4-wheel (2-wheel drive), 6-cylinder, turbocharged, liquid-cooled, 24-volt, diesel-powered vehicle, with a hydrostatic drive system that transm its power to the rear wheels. Steering is performed by a single hydraulic cylinder and tie rod assembly that controls the front wheels. Dynamic vehicle braking is provided by the hydrostatic drive system. When the accelerator is released, the brakes automatically engage. Separate tanks within the vehicle chassis carry 750 gallons of water and 55 gallons of AFFF. Three 20-pound fire extinguishers containing Halon 1211 are stored on the right side of the vehicle. One nursing line 13-10
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Figure 13-14 — A/S32P-25 shipboard firefighting and rescue vehicle. connection on each side of the vehicle provides AFFF mixture from the ship's system directly to the vehicle's water pump. The vehicle has seating for a crew of two. The driver compartment is located at the left forward end of the vehicle and contains the main control panel for activating the firefighting systems. AFFF can be sprayed from both the forward turret nozzle and handline hose reel nozzle. These nozzles operate independently and can be used simultaneously to make this vehicle ready for firefighting duty. AIRCRAFT FIRE HAZARDS Not every crash results in fire. The responsibility of the crash firefighter does not end when fire fails to occur. Serious actual and potential fire hazards may have been created, which you must eliminate or minimize without delay. The greater the damage to the aircraft is, the greater the possibility of fuel spillage. A spark or a hot engine part can ignite fuel vapors and set off a full-fledged fire. You should take every precaution to guard against accidental ignition. Personal laxity or unfamiliarity with ordinary preventive measures can allow a delayed fire to occur, which can endanger personnel. Flammable, Hazardous, and Fire-Accelerating Materials Accelerating materials carried on aircraft are of major concern to the aircraft rescue and firefighting crews. Aviation gasoline (AVGAS), jet fuels (JP-4, JP-5, and JP-8), engine oils, oxygen systems, and hydraulic fluids constitute problems in aircraft firefighting. Some of these fuels have restrictions as to where they can be used; for example, JP-4 is prohibited aboard ship due to its flash point.
Aviation Gasoline (AVGAS) The flash point (by closed cup method at sea level) of AVGAS is −50 °F (-−46 °C). The rate of flame spread has also been calculated to be between 700 and 800 feet per minute. CAUTION Under aircraft crash impact conditions where fuel-air mixtures or mists are created, all fuels are easily ignited. 13-11
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JP-4 Fuel JP-4 jet fuel is a blend of gasoline and kerosene and has a flash point of−10 °F (−23 °C). The rate of flame spread has also been calculated to be between 700 and 800 feet per minute. JP-5 Fuel JP-5 fuel is a kerosene grade with a flash point of 140 °F (60 °C). The rate of flame spread has been calcula ted to be approximately 100 feet per minute. The lowest flash point considered safe for use aboard naval vessels is 140 °F (60 °C). Fuel Tanks When an aircraft crashes, the impact usually ruptures the fuel lines and fuel tanks. Ordinarily, all the fuel is not liberated at once. There is a source of fuel that is supplying the fire either from the rupture in the tank or from the loosened and ruptured fuel lines in the accessory section of the engine. The control of the fire around the fuselage section under these conditions presents a very complex problem. The top portion of the tank is more void of liquid than any other section of the tank. Because of the restraining cushion of the liquid itself, the explosive force will be directed upward instead of downward or on a horizontal plane. Fuel loads can vary from 30 gallons in small aircraft to approximately 50,000 gallons in large jet aircraft. Fuel tanks are installed in a variety of places within the aircraft structural framework or as a built-in part of the wing. Fuel tanks are often carried under the floor area in the fuselage of helicopters. You should refer to NATOPS, U.S. Navy Aircraft Emergency Rescue Information Manual, NAVAIR 00-80R-14-1, for the exact location of fuel tanks on a particular aircraft. Upon severe impact these tanks generally rupture and result in fire. Many naval aircraft are provided with external auxiliary fuel tanks located under the wings and fuselages. The aircraft manufacturers conducted a number of tests on external aircraft fuel tanks in which they were exposed to an enveloping fuel fire. These studies show that there were no deflagrations; however, the tanks did melt or rupture, releasing fuel onto the decks. The time to fuel tank failure (release of fuel) was dependent on the percent of fuel in the tank and ranged from 28 seconds for a 10-percent load to 3 1/2 minutes for a 100-percent load. There is so little difference in the heat of combustion of the various aircraft hydrocarbon fuels that the severity after ignition would be of no significance from the "fire safety" point of view. The firefighting and control measures are the same for the entire group of aviation hydrocarbon fuels. Oxygen Systems Oxygen systems on aircraft can present hazardous conditions to firefighters during an emergency. Liquid oxygen is a light blue liquid that flows like water and is extremely cold. It boils into gaseous oxygen at −297 °F (−147 °C) and has an expansion rate of approximately 860 to 1. Liquid oxygen is a strong oxidizer, and although it is nonflammable, it vigorously supports combustion. General Hazards During aircraft firefighting operations, personnel are constantly in harm’s way, from the actual firefighting operations to the salvage and cleanup operations. All components and material in or on the aircraft are considered hazardous to personnel. The following paragraphs discuss a few of the hazards that personnel need to be familiar with. 13-12
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Anti-Icing Fluids Anti-icing fluids are usually a mixture of about 85-percent alcohol and 15-percent glycerin. While not as great as other aircraft hazards, you should remember that alcohol used in aircraft anti-icing systems burns with an almost invisible flame. The best method of control is by dilution with water. Class A Combustibles Class A combustibles in aircraft fires are best extinguished with AFFF. When aircraft cockpit and interior finish materials are burned or charred, they produce toxic gases. These gases include carbon monoxide, hydrogen chloride, and hydrogen cyanide. Therefore, it is necessary that firefighting and rescue personnel who enter an aircraft during a fire sequence be equipped with a self-contained breathing apparatus. Ordnance
Naval aircraft carry a wide variety of ordnance in support of their assigned missions. For more information on the characteristics and cookoff times of ordnance, refer to Chapter 8 of this manual and NATOPS, U.S. Navy Aircraft Firefighting and Rescue Manual, NAVAIR 00-80R-14, Chapter 2. Flare Dispensers The SUU-44/SUU-25 flare dispensers carry eight Mk 45 or LUU-2 paraflares. When the flares are ejected from the dispenser and the tray separates, they must be considered fully armed. Once the tray separates from the flare, it ignites a fuse on the Mk 45 flare, which will fire within 5 to 30 seconds. The LUU-2 flare uses a simple mechanical timer instead of an explosive fuse. If ignited, the Mk 45 or LUU-2 candle should be extinguished by inserting a water applicator tip into the burning end of the candle, applying low-velocity fog. The flare will normally extinguish in less than 30 seconds. If a fog applicator is not readily available, an alternate method is to have a fully outfitted firefighter cut the shroud lines, pick up the flare by the cold end, and jettison it over the side or remove it to a clear area if ashore. Batteries Alkaline or nickel-cadmium batteries may get hot from internal shorting or thermal runaway. The overheated battery is hazardous to both aircraft and personnel. When an overheated battery is detected, the crash crew should open the battery compartment, check for the following conditions, and take the action indicated:
When flame is present, use available extinguishing agent, such as Halon 1211 or CO 2. When the battery is emitting smoke, fumes, or electrolyte in the absence of flame or fire, make sure the battery switch in the cockpit is in the OFF position. Remove the quick disconnect from the battery and, if possible, move the battery clear of the aircraft. Use water fog to lower the battery temperature. WARNING Halon 1211 or CO2 is an acceptable fire-extinguishing agent once a fire has developed. CO2 must not be directed into a battery compartment to effect cooling or to displace explosive gases. Static electricity generated by the discharge of the extinguisher could explode hydrogen or oxygen gases trapped in the battery compartment. 13-13
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Composite Materials The following paragraphs discuss the advantages and disadvantages of using composite materials in aircraft construction.
Composite Materials Reinforced with Carbon/Graphite Fibers Composite materials that are reinforced with carbon/graphite fibers provide superior stiffness, a high strength-to-weight ratio, and ease of fabrication. As a result, this material is being used extensively in advanced aircraft, such as the F/A-18, to replace heavier metal components. Unfortunately, carbon or graphite fibers can be released into the atmosphere if their epoxy binder burns. Once free, these small, lightweight fibers can be transported up to several miles by air currents and, because of their high electrical conductivity, can damage unprotected electrical/electronic equipment. Until such time as more information is known, aircraft crash and firefighting units must attempt to extinguish fires involving carbon-fiber-reinforced composites as quickly as possible and to provide maximum containment of the aircraft debris. The containment and cleanup function is extremely important and must be treated as a special hazard prevention measure. Accordingly, the practices for extinguishing, containment, and cleanup, as stated in the NATOPS, U.S. Navy Aircraft Firefighting and Rescue Manual, NAVAIR 00-80R-14, should be observed when an aircraft crash/fire incident occurs that involves any aircraft that contain carbon-graphite fiber composites. Any aircraft incident involving fire on these types of aircraft must be considered to have potential contamination hazards until positively identified to the contrary. Composite Materials Reinforced with Boron/Tungsten Fibers Composite materials reinforced with boron fibers also provide superior stiffness, a high strength-to- weight ratio, and ease of fabrication. This material is being used in advanced aircraft, such as the F/A-18 and F-35, to replace heavier metal components. Unfortunately, boron fibers can be released if their epoxy binder burns. Boron fibers pose less of a problem to unprotected electrical equipment than carbon or graphite fibers because boron fibers are much heavier and are less likely to become airborne. Also, boron fibers are much less electrically conductive. However, loose boron fibers are stiff and sharp and thus pose handling problems. The extinguishing, containment, and cleanup practices for boron fibers are the same as those previously outlined for carbon or graphite fibers. WARNING When approaching a battery that is in a thermal runaway condition, aircraft rescue and firefighting personnel must work in teams of two and must be attired in full protective clothing, with extinguishing agent available for instant use. WARNING Inhalation of composite fibers resulting from aircraft fires and/or aircraft material damage may be harmful to personnel. Respiratory protection must be worn when personnel are exposed to these potential hazards. 13-14
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Aircraft Fire and Personnel Hazards Not every crash results in fire. The responsibility of the crash firefighter does not end when fire fails to occur. Serious actual and potential fire hazards may have been created, which must be eliminated or minimized without delay. The greater the damage to the aircraft is, the greater the possibility of fuel spillage. A spark or a hot engine part can ignite fuel vapors and set off a full-fledged fire. You must take all precautions to prevent accidental ignition. Personal laxity or unfamiliarity with ordinary preventive measures can cause a delayed fire, which can endanger personnel who would otherwise survive a disaster. Engine Accessory Section The most common source of crash fires is the engine compartment, particularly the accessory section. Take steps to prevent ignition of fuel vapors by hot exhaust stacks and collector rings. CO2 discharged through the cooling flaps, air scoop, or inspection doors is an effective precaution. CO2 will cause no damage to the engine or its accessories. Fuel Spills Fuel spills can be caused by ruptured fuel lines. These spills should be swept clear of the aircraft. Use water streams and follow up with a layer of foam to halt vaporization. An aircraft should NEVER be dragged or moved unnecessarily. There is great danger that friction will ignite the fuel. Selector Valve You should know the location of the fuel selector valve on as many types of aircraft as possible. In single-engine aircraft, this valve is usually found on the lower left-hand side of the cockpit. In multiengine aircraft, fuel selector valves for all engines are usually found on one panel. Turn the valve to OFF. It is the primary fuel cutoff valve. The valve is used to select various fuel tanks. In the OFF position, the valve completely separates the source of fuel from the engine. Battery Switch Turn the battery switch to OFF. This is the master electrical switch. It is the source of all power to the aircraft electrical system when the engine(s) are not running. Memorize the location of battery switches so you can turn the power off rapidly in emergencies. Disconnect the battery, if possible, as detonators and electrical recognition devices are connected ahead of the master switch. Turning the s witch off will not stop the flow of current to these devices.
Armament Turn gun switches to OFF so there is no chance of firing a gun accidentally. This is one of the first actions taken by firefighters to prevent fire at the crash scene. CAUTION When fighting a fire on an aircraft known to have loaded guns aboard, stay out of the area forward of the guns. If rockets or bombs are in the aircraft, stay clear of them, keep low to the deck, and keep the bombs or rockets cool with water fog or fog foam until they are declared safe. 13-15
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Figure 13-15 — Fluid line identification application. Ejection Seat The ejection seat is not normally a fire hazard if fire is not already present. The ejection seat should be disarmed or made safe by qualified personnel. The greatest danger from an ejection seat comes during rescue operations when fire is present. Hydraulic System The hydraulic system of a crashed aircraft should be considered a potential hazard. The loss of hydraulic fluid/pressure can cause an unexpected movement of the aircraft. The landing gear can collapse or brakes can release, causing injury to personnel. Fluid Line Identification Many different types of liquids and gases are required for the operation of aircraft. These liquids and gases are transmitted through many feet of tubing and flexible hose. Both liquids and gases are called fluids, and tubing and flexible hose are referred to as lines. The term "fluid lines" is used in the following discussion. Each fluid line in an aircraft is identified by bands of paint or strips of tape around the line near each fitting. These identifying markers are applied at least once in each compartment. Various other information is also applied to the lines. In most instances, lines are marked by the use of tape or decals. On lines 4 inches and larger in diameter, steel tags may be used in place of tape or decals. On lines in engine compartments, where there is a possibility of tapes, decals, or tags being drawn into the engine intake, paint is usually used. Identification tape codes indicate the function, contents, hazards, direction of flow, and pressure in the fluid line. These tapes are applied according to MIL-STD- 1247. This military s tandard was issued to standardize fluid line identification throughout the Department of Defense. Figure 13-15 shows the application of these tapes as specified by this standard. The function of a line is identified by the use of a tape. The tape, approximately 1-inch wide, has words, colors, and geometric symbols printed on it. Functional identification markings, as shown in MIL-STD-1247, are the subject of international standardization agreement. The function of the line is printed in English across the colored portion of the tape. Three-fourths of the total width on the left side of the tape has a code color. Non-English-speaking people can troubleshoot or maintain the aircraft if they know the color code. The right-hand quarter of the functional identification tape contains a geometric symbol that is different for every function. This symbol ensures that all technicians, whether colorblind or non- English-speaking will be able to identify the line function. Figure 13-16 is a listing of functions and their associated colors and identification markings as used on tapes. Hazard tape shows the hazard associated with the contents of the line. Tapes used to show hazards are approximately 1/2-inch wide, with the abbreviation of the hazard associated with the fluid in the 13-16
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line printed across the tape. There are four general classes of hazards found in connection with fluid lines (Table 13-1). Flammable material (FLAM) The hazard marking FLAM is used to identify all materials known as flammables or combustibles. Toxic and poisonous materials (TOXIC) A line identified by the word TOXIC contains materials that are extremely hazardous to life or health. Anesthetics and harmful materials (AAHM) AAHM identifies all materials that produce anesthetic vapors and all liquid chemicals and compounds that are hazardous to life and property. Physically dangerous materials (PHDAN) PHDAN identifies a line that carries material that is asphyxiating in confined areas or is under a dangerous physical state of pressure or temperature. For example, the line shown in Figure 13-15 is marked PHDAN because the compressed air is under a pressure of 3,000 psi.
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Figure 13-16 — Functional identification tape data.
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Table 13-1 — Hazards Associated with Various Fluids and Gases AIRCRAFT FIREFIGHTING TACTICS Aircraft firefighting, crash, and rescue techniques are well defined, but no two fire situations will be identical. Success will continue to depend on training, planning, leadership, and teamwork by both ship's company and air wing personnel. Supervisory personnel, fire parties, and squadron personnel should take advantage of every opportunity to drill and acquire knowledge of fixed and mobile firefighting equipment available to them. All personnel should become familiar with aircraft configuration, fuel load, weapons load, and firefighting techniques of assigned aircraft. The following paragraphs discuss procedures recommended for training purposes.
Accessory Section, Compressor Compartment, or Engine Compartment of Jet Fixed-Wing and Rotary-Wing Aircraft Fires in the accessory section, compressor compartment, or engine compartment of jet aircraft result from fuel being introduced into the area between the engine and fuselage, or between the engine and nacelle on engines carried in pods that come into contact with the heat generated by the engine. You must be familiar with these areas to be able to properly apply extinguishing agents. (For more CONTENTS HAZARD Air (under pressure) PHDAN Alcohol FLAM Carbon dioxide PHDAN Freon PHDAN Gaseous oxygen PHDAN Liquid nitrogen PHDAN Liquid oxygen PHDAN Liquid petroleum gas (LPG) FLAM Nitrogen gas PHDAN Oils and greases FLAM JP-4 FLAM Trichloroethylene AAHM CAUTION When AFFF is used as the fire suppression agent on an aircraft fire and the agent is directed at or ingested into the engine or accessory sections, the fire chief or senior fire official must notify the maintenance officer of the unit involved or, in the case of a transient aircraft, the supporting facility. 13-19
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information, refer to NATOPS, U.S. Navy Aircraft Emergency Rescue Information Manual, NAVAIR 00-80R-14-1.) Halon 1211 or CO2 is the extinguishing agent used on these fires. However, when a fire in an aircraft cannot be extinguished with Halon 1211 or CO2, the use of AFFF to prevent further damage outweighs the disadvantages. Internal Engine Fires Internal engine fires usually result when residual fuel is dumped into the engine on shutdown. When starting equipment and qualified starting personnel are immediately available, these fires may be controlled by windmilling the engine. If this procedure fails or if the equipment and personnel are not available, an extinguishing agent must be directed into the engine. Halon 1211 or CO2 is the primary agent for internal fires. Application of Halon 1211 or CO2 must be accomplished at a distance so that the Halon 1211 or CO2 enters the fire area in gaseous form.
Aircraft Engine Fires Use the following procedures for extinguishing fires in high bypass turbofan engines: 1. Engine accessory section fire. Halon 1211 or CO 2 may be introduced into the engine accessory section area through the access doors located on the aircraft engine cowling. When the fire is under control, one firefighter in full protective clothing (hot suit) will open the engine cowling. An AFFF handline should be used to provide fire protection to the firefighter.
2. Engine fire in compressor section engine core. Halon 1211 or CO 2 may be introduced into the engine intake, exhaust, or accessory section. CAUTION When CO2 or Halon 1211 is expelled directly into an engine, thermal shock may result, causing engine damage. High bypass turbofan engines require unique techniques to extinguish engine core fires. CAUTION The source of this fire will probably be burning titanium and can be identified by the sparking effect of this material when it is burning. This fire is potentially destructive and may possibly burn through the engine casing if immediate fire suppression measures are not taken. NOTE A screwdriver may be required to open the engine cowling due to the restrictions of proximity gloves. 13-20
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When the fire is under control, one firefighter in full protective clothing (hot suit) will open the engine cowling. An AFFF handline should be used to provide fire protection to the firefighter. When the engine cowling is open, apply AFFF to both sides of the engine casing to complete extinguishing and provide additional cooling. Electrical and Electronic Equipment Fires In combating electrical fires, you must secure the source of electrical power. For combating class C fires, Halon 1211 or CO2 is the primary agent and should have no adverse effect on electrical or electronic components.
Tailpipe Fires When a fire occurs in the tailpipe of an aircraft during shutdown, the aircraft engine should be started by authorized personnel in order to attempt extinguishing through exhaust pressures. If this operation does not extinguish the fire, the following should be performed by the crash crew. 1. Direct fire-extinguishing agents Halon 1211 or CO2 into the tailpipe. 2. If fire is not extinguished by the above method, direct the stream of extinguisher agent into the intake duct.
Hot Brakes During a normal or an emergency landing, the landing gear is an item of considerable concern. With the added weight and landing speeds of modern aircraft, and because of the extreme braking required on shorter runways, overheated brakes and wheels are a common occurrence. You, as a firefighter, must have a thorough understanding of the hazards created by overheated brakes, as well as the techniques and equipment used with this type of emergency. Overheated aircraft wheels and tires present a potential explosion hazard because of built-up air pressure in the tires, which is greatly increased when fire is present. To avoid endangering the crews needlessly, all nonessential personnel should evacuate the area. The recommended procedure for cooling overheated wheel, brake, and tire assemblies is to park the aircraft in an isolated area and allow the assemblies to cool in the surrounding air. Using cooling agents, such as water, is not recommended unless absolutely necessary due to increased hazards to personnel near the overheated assembly. Most aircraft operating manuals for propeller-driven aircraft recommend that flight crews keep the propeller turning fast enough to provide an ample cooling airflow. Most major jet, propeller-driven, and turboprop aircraft now have fusible plugs incorporated in the wheel rims. These WARNING Halon 1211 may be used in a small electronics compartment to make the atmosphere inert, provided firefighters do not enter the compartment, or enter it with a self-contained breathing apparatus. Do NOT use CO2 to make the atmosphere in an electronics compartment inert, as it may produce a spark. WARNING Do NOT stand directly in front of the intake duct. 13-21
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Figure 13-17 — Danger zones and attack zones in combating wheel fires. (Attack the fire from fore and aft—do not attack from the side). fusible plugs are designed to automatically deflate the tires. (Failure of fusible plugs to function properly has occurred.) Releasing the tire pressure reduces the pressure on the wheel, and thus eliminates the possibility of explosion. When responding to a wheel fire or hot brakes as a member of the emergency crew, you should approach the wheel with extreme caution in a fore or aft direction, never from the side in line with the axle. Peak temperatures may not be reached until 15 to 20 minutes after the aircraft has come to a complete stop. See Figures 13-17 and 13-18. 13-22
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Figure 13-18 — Hot brakes danger areas. Wheel Assembly Fires The following types of fires and hazards may occur around an aircraft wheel assembly: 1. The heating of aircraft wheels and tires presents a potential explosion hazard, which is greatly increased when fire is present. The combination of increased stress on the brake wheel assembly, additional tire pressure, and the deterioration of components by heat may cause an explosion. This explosion is likely to propel pieces of the tire and/or metal through the air at high speeds.
2. Materials that may contribute to wheel assembly fires are grease, hydraulic fluid, beari ng lubricants, and tire rubber. a. Grease and bearing lubricant fires. When ignited, wheel grease fires can be identified by long flames around the wheel brake/axle assembly. These fires are usually small and should be extinguished quickly with Halon 1211 or water fog. CAUTION The use of CO2 for rapid cooling of a hot brake or wheel assembly is extremely dangerous. Explosive fracture may result because of the rapid change in temperature. 13-23
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b. Rubber tires. Rubber from the tires may ignite at temperatures from 500 °F (260 °C) to 600 °F (315 °C) and can develop into an extremely hot and destructive fire. Halon 1211 or water fog should be used as early as possible to extinguish the fire. Reigniting may occur if the rubber sustains its autoignition temperature or if the rubber is abraded and the fire is deep-seated. c. A broken hydraulic line may result in the misting of petroleum-based fluids onto a damaged or hot wheel assembly. Upon ignition, misting fluid will accelerate a fire, resulting in rapid fire growth and excessive damage to the aircraft if it is not extinguished rapidly. The following safety information pertains to all aspects of wheel assembly firefighting operations: Rapid cooling may cause an explosive failure of a wheel assembly. When water fog is used on a wheel assembly fire, an intermittent application of short bursts (5 to 10 seconds) every 30 seconds should be used. The effectiveness of Halon 1211 may be severely reduced under extremely windy conditions if the Halon cannot be maintained on the fire source. You must take protective measures to prevent hydraulic fluid from coming into contact with the eyes. Seek medical attention immediately should the fluid come in contact with the eyes. Positive-pressure, self-contained breathing apparatus must be worn in fighting fires associated with hydraulic systems. Although Halon 1211 may extinguish hydraulic fluid fires, reigniting may occur because this agent lacks an adequate cooling effect. Because heat is transferred from the brake to the wheel, agent application should be concentrated on the brake area. The primary objective is to prevent the fire from spreading upward into wheel wells, wing, and fuselage areas.
WARNING A broken hydraulic line that causes misting of petroleum- based fluids around an overheated brake assembly can cause a potentially dangerous and destructive fire. Intermittent application of water fog should be used to extinguish this type of wheel assembly fire. Rapid cooling of a hot inflated aircraft tire/wheel assembly presents an explosion hazard. Therefore, firefighting personnel must exercise good judgment and care to prevent injuries. The vaporized products of hydraulic fluid decomposition will cause severe irritation to the eyes and respiratory tract. 13-24
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End of Chapter 13 Crash Rescue and Firefighting Review Questions 13-1. What is considered the fourth element necessary to sustain a fire?
A. Chemical chain reaction B. Fuel C. Heat D. Oxygen
13-2. What word is defined as the lowest temperature at which its vapors can be ignited and will continue to burn?
A. Exhaust point B. Fir e point C. Flash point D. Vapor point
13-3. At what temperature will fuel spontaneously ignite?
A. 300 °F B. 500 °F C. 700 °F D. 900 °F
13-4. Removing the fuel or combustible matter is doing what to a fire?
A. Cooling B. Feeding C. Smothering D. Starving
13-5. Water in what form is very effective for firefighting purposes?
A. Foam B. Fog C. Solid stream D. Straight stream
13-6. What fire-extinguishing agent is an inert gas and extinguishes fires by smothering them?
A. AFFF B. CO2 C. Halon 1211 D. PKP
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13-7. What fire-extinguishing agent is a dry chemical principally used as a firefighting agent for flammable liquid fires?
A. AFFF B. CO2 C. Halon 1211 D. PKP
13-8. What fire-extinguishing agent is known chemically as bromochlorodifluoromethane, is colorless, and has a sweet smell?
A. AFFF B. CO2 C. Halon 1211 D. PKP
13-9. What size, in inches, are fireplug outlets?
A. 1¼ or 2¼ B. 1½ or 2½ C. 2¼ or 3¼ D. 2½ or 3½
13-10. How many gallons does a high-capacity AFFF system tank hold?
A. 200 B. 400 C. 600 D. 800
13-11. How many gallons per minute (gpm) flow from a 2 ½ inch vari-nozzle?
A. 150 B. 200 C. 250 D. 300
13-12. What firefighting vehicle is a diesel-powered, six-wheel-drive truck with an automatic transmission?
A. A/S32P- 25 B. A/S33P- 26 C. T-1000 D. T-3000
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13-13. What firefighting vehicle is a 4-wheel (2-wheel drive), 6-cylinder, turbocharged, liquid-cooled, 24-volt, diesel-powered vehicle, with a hydrostatic drive system that transmits power to the rear wheels?
A. A/S32P- 25 B. A/S33P- 26 C. T-1000 D. T-3000
13-14. How many feet per minute (fpm) is the rate of flame spread of aviation gasoline (AVGAS)?
A. 700 to 800 B. 8 00 to 900 C. 9 00 to 1000 D. 1 ,000 to 1,100
13-15. What is the flash point of JP-4?
A. −5 °F B. −5 °C C. −10 °F D. −10 °C
13-16. The time to fuel tank failure (release of fuel) is dependent on the percent of fuel in the tank and ranges from what amount of time?
A. 2 8 seconds for a 10-percent load to 3 1/2 minutes for a 100-percent load B. 38 seconds for a 10-percent load to 4 1/2 minutes for a 100-percent load C. 1 minute for a 10-percent load to 6 1/2 minutes for a 100-percent load D. 3 minutes for a 10-percent load to 8 minutes for a 100-percent load
13-17. At what temperature does liquid oxygen boil into gaseous oxygen?
A. −55 °F B. −155 °C C. −200 °F D. −147 °C
13-18. What are the primary agents used to extinguish internal engine fires?
A. A FFF or water B. Halon 1211 or CO 2 C. Halon 1211 or PKP D. PKP or CO 2
13-19. What are the primary agents used to extinguish electrical and electronic equipment fires?
A. PKP or water B. Halon 1211 or CO 2 C. Halon 1211 or PKP D. PKP or CO 2
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13-20. What are the primary agents used to extinguish rubber tire fires?
A. PKP or water B. Halon 1211 or CO 2 C. Halon 1211 or PKP D. Halon 1211 or water fog
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APPENDIX I GLOSSARY ABOARD—In or on a ship, aircraft, or other means of transportation. ABORT—To cut short or break off an action, operation, or procedure with an aircraft, guided missile, or the like, especially because of equipment failure; for example, to abort a mission. A/C—Aircraft. ACCELERATION—A change in the velocity of a body, or the rate of such change with respect to speed or direction. ACCESSORY— A part, subassembly, or assembly designed for use in conjunction with or to supplement another assembly or unit; for example, the fuel control is an accessory for a turbojet engine. ACTUATOR—A mechanism for moving or controlling something indirectly. ADDITIVE—A substance added, in relatively small amounts, to improve another substance's physical properties or performance. AERODYNAMICS— The science that deals with the motion of air and other gaseous fluids and the forces acting on bodies in motion relative to such fluids. AFFF— Aqueous film-forming foam; also known as light water. AFT—Towards the rear of the ship, aircraft, or other object. AILERON—A movable control surface or device. One of a pair located in or attached to the wings on both sides of an aircraft. The primary purpose is to control the aircraft laterally or in a roll by creating unequal or opposing lifting forces on opposite sides of the aircraft. AIMD—Aviation Intermediate Maintenance Department. AIRFOIL— A structure or body, such as an aircraft wing or propeller blade, designed to provide lift/thrust when in motion relative to the surrounding air. AIRSPEED— The speed of an aircraft, missile, rocket, or the like, relative to the air through which it flies. ALLOY— A mixture with metallic properties composed of two or more elements, of which at least one is a metal. ALTIMETER—An instrument for measuring altitude. It uses the change in atmospheric pressure with altitude to indicate the approximate elevation above a given point. AMBIENT—Surrounding; adjacent to; next to. For example, ambient conditions are physical conditions of the immediate area, such as ambient temperature, ambient humidity, and ambient pressure ANGLE OF ATTACK—The angle at which a body, such as an airfoil or fuselage, meets a flow or air. ANNEAL—To heat and then cool. ANNUNCIATOR—Electrically controlled signal board or indicator. AI-1
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ANODIZE—To subject a metal to electrolytic action, as the anode of a cell, in order to coat it with a protective film. ANTI-ICING—The prevention of ice formation upon an aircraft's surface or engines. APEX—The uppermost point. APRON—An area, ordinarily paved, for parking or handling aircraft. ASCEND—To move or rise upward. ASW—Antisubmarine warfare. ATMOSPHERE—The body of air surrounding the earth. The atmospheric pressure at sea level is 14.7 pounds per square inch (psi). ATTITUDE—The position or orientation of an aircraft, either in motion or at rest, as determined by the relationship between its axes and some reference line or plane or some fixed system of reference axes. AUTOMATIC PARACHUTE RIPCORD RELEASE—A barometrically controlled device that mechanically or by explosive force actuates the parachute ripcord assembly and causes the parachute container to open at a preset altitude. AUTOMATIC PILOT—A device or system that automatically controls the flight of an aircraft or guided missile. AVGAS—Aviation gasoline for reciprocating engines. AVIONICS—Electronics as applied to aviation. AXIS—An imaginary line that passes through a body, about which the body rotates or may be assumed to rotate; for example, the horizontal axis, the lateral axis, and the longitudinal axis about which an aircraft rotates. BERNOULLI'S PRINCIPLE—If a fluid flowing through a tube reaches a constriction, or narrowing of the tube, the velocity of fluid flowing through the constriction increases and the pressure decreases. BRU—Bomb Rack Unit. CAD—Cartridge Actuated Device. CANOPY—A covering; for example, a cockpit canopy is a transparent covering for a cockpit. CANTED DECK— The area of an aircraft carrier flight deck that is at an angle to the center line of the ship. The canted deck permits aircraft to be parked out of the way of landing aircraft. CELSIUS—The temperature scale using the freezing point as zero and the boiling point as 100, with 100 equal divisions between, called degrees. A reading is usually written in the abbreviated form, for example, 75 °C. This scale was formerly known as the Centigrade scale, but was renamed Celsius in recognition of Andrew Celsius, the Swedish astronomer who devised the scale. CHUTE—Abbreviated slang form of parachute. CNO—Chief o f Naval Operations. COCKPIT—A compartment in the top of an aircraft fuselage for the pilot and other crew members. AI-2
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COWLING—A removable cover or housing placed over or around an aircraft component or section, especially an engine. DE-ICING—The breaking off or melting of ice from aircraft surfaces or fuel induction systems. DENSITY— The weight per unit volume of a substance. DESCENT—Relative to an aircraft, the downward movement, under control, from a higher to a lower altitude. DRAG—The force that tends to hold an aircraft back. Drag is caused by the disruption of the airflow about the wings, fuselage (body), and all protruding objects on the aircraft. DYE MARKER—A substance that, when placed in water, spreads out and colors the water im mediately to make a spot readily visible from the air. EJECTION SEAT—An emergency escape seat for propelling an occupant out and away from the aircraft by means of an explosive charge or rocket motor. ELEVATOR—As applied to aircraft, a control surface, usually hinged to a horizontal stabilizer, that is used to control the aircraft about its lateral axis. As applied to aircraft carriers, elevators are used to move aircraft between the flight deck and hangar deck. EMERGENCY KIT—A standard soft pack, high-speed soft pack, special kit, or rigid seat survival kit containing a raft and survival equipment needed by an aircrewman in case of emergency. EMPENNAGE—The tail section of an aircraft, including the stabilizing and control surfaces. ENERGY— The ability or capacity to do work. ETA—Estimated time of arrival. FACE CURTAIN—A sheet of heavy fabric, installed above an ejection seat, that is pulled down to trigger the ejection seat and to protect the pilot or crew member's face against wind blast. FAIRING—A part or structure that has a smooth, streamlined outline, used to cover a nonstreamlined object. FLAP— The tendency of a blade to rise with high-lift demands as it tries to screw itself upward into the air. FLASH POINT— The temperature at which a substance, such as oil or fuel, will give off a vapor that will flash or burn momentarily when ignited. FLIGHT CONTROL MECHANISM— The linkage that connects the control(s) in the cockpit with the flight control surface(s). FORCE—The action of one body on another tending to change the state of motion of a body acted upon. Force is usually expressed in pounds. FRC—Fleet Readiness Center. FUSELAGE—The main or central structure of an aircraft that carries the crew, passengers, or other load. FUZE— A term used for the mechanical or electrical device that initiates detonation of an explosive at a desired time. GBU—Guided Bomb Unit. AI-3
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GORE—The portions of the canopy located between adjacent radial seams and the vent and skirt hem. It consists of cloth sections sewn together. GPS—Global Positioning System. GROMMET—A metal eye and washer used to reinforce a hole in material; for example, gromme ts on container side flaps. GSE—Ground Support Equipment. GUIDED WEAPON—A weapon whose course may be altered inflight by a guidance control unit. HARM—High-speed, Antiradiation Missile. HE—High Explosive. HORSEPOWER—A unit of power equal to the power necessary to raise 33,000 pounds 1 foot in 1 minute. HOVERING—Maintaining a position above a fixed spot on the ground. A helicopter has the ability to remain in one spot in the air with little or no movement in any direction. HUMIDITY—Moisture or water vapor in the air. HYDRAULICS—The branch of mechanics that deals with the action or use of liquids forced through tubes and orifices under pressure to operate various mechanics. INERTIA— The tendency of a body at rest to remain at rest, and a body in motion to continue to move at a constant speed along a straight line, unless the body is acted upon in either case by an unbalanced force. JDAM—Joint Direct Attack Munition. JETTISON—To throw or dump overboard; for example, to drop or eject fuel, tanks, or gear from an aircraft to lighten the load for emergency action. JSOW—Joint Standoff Weapon. LAG—The tendency of rotor blades to remain at rest during acceleration. LANDING GEAR—The components of an aircraft that support and provide mobility for the aircraft on land, water, or other surfaces. LATERAL AXIS—The pivot point about which the aircraft pitches. LAU—Launch Adapter Unit (aircraft installed launcher). LAUNCH—To release or send forth. For example, to launch aircraft from an aircraft carrier. LE AD—The tendency of rotor blades to remain in motion during deceleration. LEADING EDGE—The forward edge of an airfoil that normally meets the air first. LGB—Laser-Guided Bomb. LGTR—Laser Guided Training Round. LHA—Amphibious Assault Ship (General Purpose). LHD —Amphibious Assault Ship (Multipurpose). LIFT—The force that acts in an upward direction to support the aircraft in the air. It counteracts the effects of weight. Lift must be greater than or equal to weight if flight is to be sustained. AI-4
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LOADING— An operation that installs or stores airborne weapons on or in an aircraft. LONGERON— A main structural member that runs along the length of an airplane body to the fuselage. LONGITUDINAL—The lengthwise dimension; for example, the longitudinal axis of an aircraft runs lengthwise from the nose to the tail. LOX—Liquid oxygen. MIM—Maintenance Instruction Manual. MOD—Model or Modification. MONOCOQUE—An aircraft structure in which the stressed outer skin carries all or a major portion of the torsional and bending stress. MRC—Maintenance Requirements Card. MSDS— Material Safety Data Sheet. MULTI-CLIMATE PROTECTION SYSTEM (MCPS)—A modular garment system composed of 12 pieces that can be mixed and matched to form 6 different individual layers. The garment system can be worn in conjunction with flight suits and aviation flight equipment in a broad range of climate conditions by adding or removing layers that provide flame resistance, moisture management, thermal wind, and water protection. NACELLE— A streamlined structure, housing, or compartment on an aircraft; for example, a housing for an engine. NAMP—The Naval Aviation Maintenance Program. NAS—Naval air station. NATO—North Atlantic Treaty Organization. NATOPS—Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures Standardization. NBC—Nuclear Biological Chemical. NEWTON'S FIRST LAW OF MOTION— According to Newton's first law of motion (inertia), an object at rest will remain at rest, or an object in motion will continue in motion at the same speed and in the same direction, until an outside force acts on it. For an aircraft to taxi or fly, a force must be applied to it. It will remain at rest without an outside force. Once the aircraft is moving, another force must act on it to bring it to a stop. It will continue in motion without an outside force. This willingness of an object to remain at rest or to continue in motion is referred to as inertia. NEWTON'S SECOND LAW OF MOTION— The second law of motion (force) states that if an object moving with uniform speed is acted upon by an external force, the change of motion (acceleration) will be directly proportional to the amount of force and inversely proportional to the mass of the object being moved. The motion will take place in the direction in which the force acts. Simply stated, this means that an object being pushed by 10 pounds of force will travel faster than it would if it were pushed by 5 pounds of force. A heavier object will accelerate more slowly than a lighter object when an equal force is applied. NEWTON'S THIRD LAW OF MOTION— The third law of motion (action and reaction) states that for every action (force) there is an equal and opposite reaction (force). This law can be demonstrated with a balloon. If you inflate a balloon with air and release it AI-5
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without securing the neck, as the air is expelled the balloon moves in the opposite direction of the air rushing out of it. OAT—Outside air temperature. PARACHUTE—A device that offers resistance to the air, thereby decreasing the velocity of a descending body to permit landing at a suitable rate of descent. PARACHUTE ASSEMBLY— A complete parachute, including the canopy assembly, container assembly, harness assembly, and riser/lift web assembly. PITCH— The rotational movement of an aircraft about its lateral axis. Pitch can best be described as the up and down motion of the nose of the aircraft. PRESSURE—The amount of force distributed over each unit of area. Pressure is expressed in pounds per square inch (psi). PYLON—A structure or strut that supports an engine pod, external tank, etc., on an aircra ft. RADAR—A device that uses reflected radio waves for the detection of objects. RADOME—A dome housing for a radar antenna on an aircraft. RAMAIR—Air forced into an air intake or duct by the motion of the intake or duct through the air. RATE OF DESCENT—The speed that a parachute descends through the air. The rate varies according to atmospheric pressure, weight of load, movement of air (updraft and down draft), and the size, design, and condition of canopy. RESCUE NET—A net that resembles a conically shaped birdcage with an opening on one side. The net weighs approximately 20 pounds and is bright yellow for high visibility. RESCUE SEAT— A buoyant aluminum device consisting of a hollow flotation chamber and a three-pronged seat with prongs 120 degrees apart. RESCUE STROP— A device used to assist personnel performing rescue work from a helicopter over water or land. Also known as the horse collar and rescue sling. RESERVE PARACHUTE— A chest-type parachute attached to the harness of a training or test parachute in addition to the back type. It has no pilot parachute. It is used in case the main parachute fails to open properly or sustains damage that will cause an unsafe rate of descent. RPM—Revolutions per minute. RUDDER— An upright control surface that is deflected to control yawing movement about the vertical axis of an aircraft. SAR—Search and Rescue. SE—Support equipment. All of the equipment on the ground needed to support aircraft in a state of readiness for flight. SELECTOR VALVE—A valve used to control the flow of fluid to a particular mechanism, as in a hydraulic system. SERVICING—The refilling of an aircraft with consumables such as fuel, oil, and compressed gases to predetermined levels, pressures, quantities, or weights. SLAM-ER— Stand-off Land Attack Missile – Expanded Response. SLIPSTREAM—The stream of air driven backward by a rotating propeller. AI-6
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SPECIFIC GRAVITY—The ratio of the weight of a given volume of a substance to the weight of an equal volume of some standard substance, such as water. STRUT—A type of supporting brace; a rigid member or assembly that bears compr ession loads, tension loads, or both, such as a landing gear to transmit the load from the fuselage of the aircraft. TAB—A small auxiliary airfoil set into the trailing edge of an aircraft control surface and used to trim, to move, or to assist in moving the larger surface. TD— Target Detector. TENSION—A force or pressure that exerts a pull or resistance. THRUST—Th e forward-direction pushing or pulling force developed by an aircraft engine or rocket engine. TORQUE—A turning or twisting force. TOW—Tube Launched Optically Tracked Wire Guided Missile. TRAILING EDGE—The aft edge of an airfoil. The edge over which the airflow normally passes last. VELOCITY— The rate of motion in a particular direction. VERTICAL AXIS—The axis that runs from the top to the bottom of an aircraft. It runs perpendicular to both the roll and pitch axes. The movement associated with this axis is yaw. VISCOSITY—The internal resistance of a liquid that tends to prevent it from flowing. WAVE OFF—An act or instance of refusing an aircraft permission to land in an approach, requiring another attempt. Also, the signal given an aircraft in such refusal. WEIGHT—The force of gravity acting downward on the aircraft and everything in the aircraft, such as crew, fuel, and cargo. YAW—The rotational movement of an aircraft about its vertical axis. Yaw is best described as the change in aircraft heading to the right or left of the primary direction of an aircraft. AI-7
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APPENDIX II REFERENCES
Chapter 1 Basic Military Requirements, NAVEDTRA 14325, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, February 2002. United States Naval Aviation 1910-1995, Naval Historical Center, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC, 1997. United States Naval Aviation 1996-2011, Naval Historical Center, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC, 2011. Manual of Navy Enlisted Manpower and Personnel Classification and Occupational Standards, NAVPERS 18068-F, Department of the Navy, Bureau of Naval Personnel, Washington, DC, July 2012. Chapter 2 Basic Military Requirements, NAVEDTRA 14325, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, February 2002. Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2 series, Naval Air Systems Command, Patuxent River, MD, May 2012. Aviation Maintenance Ratings, NAVEDTRA 14022, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, November 2003. Chapter 3 United States Naval Aviation 1910-1995, Naval Historical Center, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC, 1997. United States Naval Aviation 1996-2011, Naval Historical Center, Department of the Navy, Washington, DC, 2011. NOTE Although the following references were current when this NRTC was published, their continued currency cannot be assured. When consulting these references, keep in mind that they may have been revised to reflect new technology or revised methods, practices, or procedures; therefore, you need to ensure that you are studying the latest references. If you find an incorrect or obsolete reference, please use the Rate Training Manual User Update Form provided at the end of each chapter to contact the CNATT Rate Training Manager. AII-1
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Fundamentals of Aviation and Space Technology, Institute of Aviation, University of Illinois, Savoy, IL, 1974. Chapter 4 Aviation Structural Mechanic (AM), NAVEDTRA 14315A, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, March 2011. General Manual for Structural Repair, NAVAIR 01-1A-1, Naval Air Technical Services Facility, Philadelphia, PA, November 2006. Chapter 5 Aviation Structural Mechanic (AM), NAVEDTRA 14315A, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, March 2011. Chapter 6 Aviation Structural Mechanic (AM), NAVEDTRA 14315A, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, March 2011. Chapter 7 Aviation Machinist’s Mate 3 & 2, NAVEDTRA 14008, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, January 2004. Chapter 8 Aviation Electrician’s Mate (AE), NAVEDTRA 14009A, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, March 2011. Aviation Electronics Technician 1 (Organizational), NAVEDTRA 14030, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, June 1993. Chapter 9 Aviation Ordnanceman, NAVEDTRA 14313A, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, March 2011. Chapter 10 Aviation Support Equipment Technician (AS), NAVEDTRA 14329, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, July 2002. Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2 series, Naval Air Systems Command, Patuxent River, MD, May 2012.
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Chapter 11 Aviation Boatswain's Mate H, NAVEDTRA 14353, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, November 2003. Aviation Maintenance Ratings, NAVEDTRA 14022, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, November 2003. Aircraft Signals, NATOPS Manual, NAVAIR 00-80T-113, Naval Air Systems Command, December 2001. CV NATOPS Manual, NAVAIR 00-80T-105, Naval Air Systems Command, May 2007. LHD/LHA/LPD NATOPS Manual, NAVAIR 00-80T-106, Naval Air Systems Command, May 2009. CVN FLIGHT/HANGAR DECK NATOPS Manual, NAVAIR 00-80T-120, Naval Air Systems Command, December 2010. Chapter 12 Aircrew Survival Equipmentman (PR), NAVEDTRA 14218A, Naval Education and Training Program Management Support Activity, Pensacola, FL, January 2012. Chapter 13 Aviation Boatswain's Mate H, NAVEDTRA 14353, Naval Education and Training Professional Development and Technology Center (NETPDTC), Pensacola, FL, November 2003. Aircraft Firefighting and Rescue Manual, NATOPS, U.S. Navy, NAVAIR 00-80R-14, Naval Sea Systems Command, May 2011. AII-3
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APPENDIX III HAND SIGNALS
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APPENDIX IV Answers to End of Chapter Questions Chapter 1 – Mission and History of Naval Aviation
1-1. A 1-2. C 1-3. C 1-4. A 1-5. D 1-6. B 1-7. D 1-8. C 1-9. A 1-10. B 1-11. D 1-12. B 1-13. C 1-14. C 1-15. A
Chapter 2 – Organization of Naval Aviation
2-1. A 2-2. C 2-3. C 2-4. B 2-5. D 2-6. B 2-7. B 2-8. A 2-9. A 2-10. D 2-11. C 2-12. B 2-13. A 2-14. D 2-15. C 2-16. B 2-17. D 2-18. C 2-19. A 2-20. D 2-21. B 2-22. D 2-23. C 2-24. C 2-25. A 2-26. C 2-27. D 2-28. B 2-29. B 2-30. C 2-31. C 2-32. D 2-33. A 2-34. B 2-35. D 2-36. C 2-37. B 2-38. A 2-39. A
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Chapter 3 – Principles of Flight
3-1. C 3-2. B 3-3. A 3-4. D 3-5. C 3-6. D 3-7. B 3-8. A 3-9. B 3-10. C 3-11. D 3-12. A 3-13. D 3-14. B 3-15. A 3-16. B 3-17. A 3-18. B 3-19. A 3-20. C
Chapter 4 – Aircraft Basic Construction
4-1. D 4-2. D 4-3. C 4-4. C 4-5. B 4-6. A 4-7. A 4-8. C 4-9. D
Chapter 5 – General Aircraft Maintenance
5-1. B 5-2. D 5-3. D 5-4. B 5-5. C 5-6. D 5-7. A 5-8. D 5-9. A 5-10. D 5-11. B 5-12. D 5-13. C 5-14. B 5-15. B 5-16. D 5-17. D 5-18. C 5-19. B 5-20. D 5-21. A 5-22. A 5-23. A 5-24. B 5-25. A 5-26. B 5-27. C 5-28. D 5-29. B 5-30. C 5-31. A 5-32. C
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Chapter 6 – Aircraft Hardware
6-1. D 6-2. A 6-3. A 6-4. B 6-5. D 6-6. C 6-7. C 6-8. A 6-9. A 6-10. A 6-11. B
Chapter 7 – Aircraft Power Plants
7-1. B 7-2. C 7-3. A 7-4. D 7-5. B 7-6. C 7-7. A 7-8. D 7-9. C 7-10. B 7-11. B 7-12. C 7-13. B 7-14. A 7-15. D 7-16. B 7-17. D 7-18. A 7-19. B 7-20. B
Chapter 8 – Aircraft Avionics
8-1. D 8-2. A 8-3. A 8-4. C 8-5. B 8-6. C 8-7. B 8-8. B 8-9. D 8-10. C 8-11. A 8-12. C 8-13. B 8-14. A 8-15. C 8-16. B 8-17. D 8-18. C
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Chapter 9 – Aircraft Ordnance
9-1. C 9-2. D 9-3. B 9-4. D 9-5. B 9-6. A 9-7. C 9-8. C 9-9. D 9-10. D 9-11. A 9-12. B 9-13. A 9-14. D 9-15. A 9-16. A 9-17. A 9-18. B 9-19. D 9-20. B 9-21. A 9-22. B 9-23. C 9-24. B 9-25. C 9-26. C 9-27. B 9-28. A 9-29. C 9-30. B 9-31. D 9-32. B 9-33. C
Chapter 10 – Support Equipment
10-1. B 10-2. C 10-3. D 10-4. B 10-5. C 10-6. A 10-7. C 10-8. D 10-9. D 10-10. A 10-11. B 10-12. B
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Chapter 11 – Line Operations and Safety
11-1. A 11-2. C 11-3. B 11-4. D 11-5. A 11-6. C 11-7. A 11-8. D 11-9. B 11-10. D 11-11. B 11-12. A 11-13. C 11-14. A 11-15. D 11-16. D 11-17. A 11-18. B 11-19. B 11-20. B 11-21. C 11-22. D 11-23. C 11-24. D 11-25. B
Chapter 12 – Aircrew Survival Equipment
12-1. A 12-2. D 12-3. B 12-4. D 12-5. D 12-6. B 12-7. B 12-8. A 12-9. A 12-10. D 12-11. B 12-12. A 12-13. C 12-14. B 12-15. D
Chapter 13 – Crash Rescue and Firefighting
13-1. A 13-2. C 13-3. B 13-4. D 13-5. B 13-6. B 13-7. D 13-8. C 13-9. B 13-10. C 13-11. C 13-12. D 13-13. A 13-14. A 13-15. C 13-16. A 13-17. D 13-18. B 13-19. B 13-20. D
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Index-1 INDEX
A Aerodynamics, physical laws affecting, 3-1 to 3-2 Aerographer's Mate (AG), 1-15 Air Traffic Controller (AC), 1-15 Aircraft aboard carriers, securing, 11-12 to 11-15 Aircraft avionics, 8-1 to 8-23 active, 8-19 airborne auxiliary power units (APU), 8-4 airborne communications equipment, 8-13 to 8-14 aircraft storage batteries, 8-1 to 8-3 airspeed and mach number indicator, 8-6 to 8-7 alternating current (ac) systems, 8-3 to 8-5 altimeter, 8-6 altitude indicator, 8-11 antisubmarine warfare equipment (ASW), 7-19 to 7-20 applications of radar, 8-17 battery safety precautions, 8-2 carrier aircraft electrical power 8-5 communications and navigation equipment, 8-13 to 8-18 echo principles, 8-16 to 8-17 electronic countermeasures, 8-19 emergency electrical power, 8-3 to 8-4 emergency power generators, 8-3 to 8-4 engine instruments, 8-8 to 8-10 exhaust gas temperature indicator, 8-8 fuel pressure indicator, 8-7 fuel quantity indicator, 8-9 gyro compass, 8-12 gyroscopes, 8-11 to 8-12 horizontal situation indicator, 8-12 hydraulic pressure indicator, 8-7 to 8-8 identification friend or foe (IFF), 8-18 to 8-19 lead-acid battery, 8-1 to 8-2 long-range communications, 8-13 magnetic anomaly detection (MAD), 8-20 magnetic (standby) compass, 8-12 navigational computers, 8-15 to 8-16 navigational equipment, 8-14 to 8-16 navigational instruments, 8-12 oil pressure indicator, 8-7 passive, 8-19 pitot-static system, 8-5 to 8-6 pressure indicating gauges, 8-7 radar, 8-16 to 8-18 rate of climb, 8-7 servicing system, 8-5 short-range communications, 8-13 to 8-14 sonobuoys, 8-19 to 8-20
p. 493
Index-2 tachometer, 8-9 tactical air navigation system (TACAN), 8-14 turbine inlet temperature 8-8 turn and bank indicator, 8-12 use in fire control, 8-18 use in tactical air control, 8-18 vertical scale indicator, 7-9 to 7-10 Aircraft basic construction, 4-1 to 4-23 arresting gear, 4-14 bending, 4-20 catapult equipment, 4-15 compression, 4-20 fixed-wing aircraft, 4-1 to 4-15 flight control surfaces, 4-6 to 4-11 fuselage, 4-1 to 4-3 fuselage, 4-16 landing gear, 4-12 to 4-14 main rotor assembly, 4-17 to 4-18 materials of construction, 4-22 to 4-23 metallic materials, 4-22 to 4-23 nonmetallic materials, 4-23 pylon, 4-18 rotor head, 4-18 rotary wing, 4-17 rotary-wing aircraft, 4-15 to 4-19 secondary flight controls, 4-10 shear, 4-20 specific action of stresses, 4-20 to 4-21 stabilizers, 4-5 to 4-6 structural stress, 4-19 to 4-20 tail landing gear, 4-16 to 4-17 tail rotor assembly, 4-18 to 4-19 tension, 4-20 torsion, 4-21 varying stress, 4-21 wings, 4-4 to 4-5 Aircraft carrier, organization of an, 2-14 to 2-20 air department, 2-16 to 2-17 aircraft intermediate maintenance department (afloat), 2-19 to 2-20 carrier air wing, 2-15 to 2-17 dental department, 2-18 engineering department, 2-18 medical department, 2-18 navigation department, 2-18 operations department, 2-16 supply department, 2-18 weapons department, 2-18 Aircraft drawings, 5-6 Aircraft handling, air station, 11-19 to 11-20 Aircraft hardware, 6-1 to 6-31
p. 494
Index-3 aircraft bolts, 6-7 to 6-10 aircraft electrical hardware, 6-23 to 6-25 blind rivets, 6-3 bonding, 6-25 camloc fasteners, 6-14 to 6-15 connectors, 6-24 cotter pins, 6-29 countersunk head rivets, 6-4 dzus fasteners, 6-15 electrical connectors, 6-24 flat head pins, 6-19 flexible connectors/clamps, 6-15 general safety wiring methods, 6-29 to 6-30 machine screws, 6-13 miscellaneous fasteners, 6-15 nonself-locking nuts, 6-11 nuts, 6-10 to 6-12 plain washers, 6-14 rivets, 6-1 to 6-5 rivnuts, 6-5 safety methods, 6-29 safety wiring, 6-30 safetying of nuts and bolts, 6-11 screws, 6-13 self-locking nuts, 6-11 self-tapping screws, 6-13 snap rings, 6-15 solid rivets, 6-1 special washers, 6-14 Aircraft hardware—Continued structural screws, 6-13 taper pins, 6-14 terminals, 6-24 threaded fasteners, 6-15 turnbuckles, 6-21 to 6-22 and 6-30 turnlock fasteners, 6-14 to 6-15 washers, 6-14 wire and cable, 6-24 Aircraft hoisting slings, 5-26 to 5-27 Aircraft jacking, 5-30 to 5-32 Aircraft ordnance, 9-1 to 9-77 20-mm automatic aircraft guns, 9-55 to 9-58 air launched guided missiles, 9-25 to 9-33 aircraft bomb-type ammunition, 9-2 aircraft fire-extinguisher cartridge, 9-64 aircraft laid mines, 9-17 to 9-18 Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM), 9-38 to 9-39 ADU-299 missile launcher adapter, 9-55 antitank bomb cluster, 9-19 to 9-21 bomb ejector racks, 9-68 to 9-72 bomb racks, 9-64 to 9-72
p. 495
Index-4 cartridges and cartridge-actuated devices (CADs), 9-63 to 9-64 CCU-45/B impulse cartridge 9-64 guided missile launchers, 9-45 to 9-55 full-scale practice bombs, 9-23 to 9-24 fuzing, 9-31 Harpoon, 9-33 to 9-35 high and low explosives, 9-3 High-Speed Antiradiation Missile (HARM), 9-39 to 9-40 identification and marking of ordnance, 9-5 impulse and delay cartridges, 9-64 laser guided bombs, 9-14 to 9-16 LAU-7 guided missile launcher, 9-46 to 9-48 LAU-115 guided missile launcher, 9-49 LAU-116 guided missile launcher, 9-50 LAU-117 guided missile launcher, 9-51 LAU-118 guided missile launcher, 9-51 LAU-127 guided missile launcher, 9-52 M279 guided missile launcher, 9-53 to 9-54 Maverick, 9-39 miscellaneous cartridges, 9-64 Mk 1 Mod 3 impulse cartridge, 9-64 Mk 19 Mod 0 impulse cartridge, 9-64 Mk 79 Mod 0 illumination signal kit, 9-60 to 9-62 Mk 80 (series) general-purpose bombs, 9-8 to 9-9 Mk 97 Mod 0 impulse cartridge, 9-64 MK 108 Mod 1 Illumination Signal Kit 9-62 to 9-63 Mk 124 Mod 0 marine smoke and illumination signal, 9-60 personnel escape device cartridges, 9-64 practice bombs, 9-22 to 9-24 pyrotechnics, 9-58 to 9-62 Sidewinder, 9-35 to 9-36 Sparrow, 9-32 to 9-33 subcaliber practice bombs, 9-22 terminology, 9-1 to 9-4 TOW missile launcher 9-54 to 9-55 Aircraft power plants, 7-1 to 7-17 engine identification, 7-13 to 7-17 ANA Bulletin No. 306M designation system, 7-13 to 7-15 accessory section, 7-12 Brayton cycle, the, 7-12 to 7-13 component controls, systems, and sections, 7-10 to 7-12 engine noise, 7-16 to 7-17 exhaust area, 7-16 fuel control, 7-10 gas turbine engines, 7-3 to 7-7 ignition system, 7-10 intake ducts, 7-16 jet propulsion engines, 7-2 to 7-12 lubrication system, 7-10 to 7-11 manufacturer's symbol, 7-13 and 7-15 MIL-STD-1812 designation system, 7-15 to 7-16
p. 496
Index-5 model indicator, 7-16 model numbers, 7-14 power plant safety precautions, 7-16 special designations, 7-14 rocket engines, 7-1 to 7-3 type indicator, 7-15 to 7-16 type symbols, 7-13 Aircrew survival equipment, 12-1 to 12-59 anti-g coverall, 12-15 to 12-16 antiexposure coverall, 12-10 canopy, 12-22 cranial helmet assembly, 11-3 distress light (strobe), 12-49 flight boots, 12-4 flight clothing, 12-1 to 12-17 flight coveralls (cold weather), 12-3 to 12-4 flight coveralls (summer weight), 12-2 to 12-3 flight gloves, 12-4 flotation assembly, 12-36 to 12-40 individual survival kit, 12-51 to 12-53 integrated torso harness suit, the, 12-28 helicopter rescue strop, 12-53 helmet, 11-3 HGU-84/P helmet, 12-5 to 12-6 Life preservers, 12-36 Life preserver assembly LPU-32/P, 12-37 to 12-38 Life preserver assembly LPU-34/P, 12-38 to 12-39 Life preserver assembly LPU-36/P, 12-39 to 12-40 Mk 79 Mod 0 illumination signal kit, 12-48 Mk-124 Mod 0 marine smoke and illumination signal, 12-48 multiplace life rafts, 12-41 to 12-43 one-man life raft, 12-40 to 12-41 parachutes, 12-17 to 12-35 parachute container, 12-23 parachute harnesses, 12-23 to 12-24 personal survival equipment, 12-46 to 12-56 pilot chute, 12-21 rescue, 12-59 rescue equipment, 12-53 to 12-56 rescue net, 12-54 signaling mirror, 12-47 survival items, 12-51 Aircraft survival equipment—Continued suspension lines, 12-22 twelve-man life raft, 12-43 water bag, 12-52 Aircrew survival equipmentman, (PR), 1-19 Airfoil, the 3-3 to 3-4 Airman duties, 1-19 Airman rate, history of the, 1-12 Analysis methods, 5-45
p. 497
Index-6 Aviation boatswain's mate, aircraft handling (ABH), 1-14 Aviation boatswain's mate, fuels (ABF), 1-14 Aviation boatswain's mate, launching and recovery equipment (ABE), 1-14 Aviation electrician's mate (AE), 1-15 Aviation electronics technician (AT[I] and AT[O]), 1-17 to 11-18 Aviation machinist's mate (AD), 1-15 Aviation maintenance administrationman, (AZ), 1-18 Aviation ordnanceman (AO), 1-17 Aviation ratings, 1-13 Aviation structural mechanic (AM), 1-16 Aviation structural mechanic, safety equipment (AME), 1-16 Aviation support equipment technician (AS), 1-17 Axle jacks, 5-30
B Batteries, aircraft storage, 8-1 to 8-3 battery safety precautions, 8-2 battery (lead-acid), 8-1 to 8-2 battery (nickel-cadmium), 8-2 Beech Aircraft Texan, T-6, 2-31 Bell Cobra, AH-1, 2-29 Bell Huey, UH-1, 2-29 Bell Jet Ranger, TH-57, 2-30 Boeing Clipper, C-40, 2-27 Boeing Poseidon, P-8, 2-25 Boeing Osprey, V-22, 2-30 Bolts, aircraft, 6-7 to 6-10 Bomb, body, 9-6 Bomb, fin assemblies, 9-10 to 9-13 Bomb, fuzing, 9-6 Bomb ejector rack, 9-68 to 9-72 Bomb rack, 9-64 to 9-72 Bomb-type ammunition, aircraft, 9-2 Bombs, Mk 80 (series) general-purpose, 9-7 to 9-13 Bombs, practice, 9-22 to 9-23 full-scale practice bombs, 9-23 to 9-24 subcaliber practice bombs, 9-22 Boots, flight, 12-4 Brayton cycle, the, 7-17 to 7-18 B-1 maintenance platform, 10-14 to 10-15 B-4 maintenance platform, 10-15
C CADs (cartridges and cartridge-actuated devices), 9-63 to 9-64 Carrier divisions, 2-19 to 2-20 Cartridges miscellaneous, 9-64 Catapult launching, 11-6 Chain of command, naval aviation, 2-1 CO2 fire extinguisher, 13-4 to 13-5 Communications and navigation equipment, 8-13 to 8-14 Computers, navigation, 8-15 to 8-16
p. 498
Index-7 Cotter pins, 6-29 Coverall, antiexposure, 12-10 Coveralls, anti-g, 12-15 to 12-16 Cranes, crash and salvage, 10-4 to 10-5 Crash rescue and firefighting, 13-1 to 13-28 aircraft firefighting and rescue vehicles, 13-10 to 13-11 aircraft fire hazards, 13-11 to 13-13 armament, 13-15 battery switch, 13-15 carbon dioxide, 13-4 to 13-5 chemical foam (AFFF), 13-4 chemistry of fire, 13-1 to 13-2 classes of fire, 13-2 to 13-3 CO2 fire extinguisher, 13-4 to 13-5 dry chemical (PKP), 13-5 to 13-6 engine accessory section, 13-15 ejection seat, 13-16 extinguishing agents, 13-3 to 13-6 fire-fighting equipment, 13-6 to 13-9 fire-fighting techniques, 13-19 to 13-24 firemain system aboard ship, 13-6 fluid line identification, 13-16 to 13-18 fuel spills, 13-15 Halon 1211, 13-5 hot brakes, 13-21 to 13-23 hydraulic system, 13-16 operating vehicles, 11-1 to 11-2 ordnance, 13-13 Oshkosh T-3000 firefighting truck, 13-10 P-25 truck 13-10 to 13-11 protective clothing, 13-9 to 13-10 safety precautions, 11-18 to 11-19 seat-ejection, 13-16 selector valve, 13-15 tools, 13-8 to 13-9 water, 13-3 to 13-4 wheel fires, 13-21 to 13-22 Crash and salvage equipment, 10-4 to 10-5 A/S32A-35A (CVCC) aircraft crash handling and salvage crane, 10-4 A/S32A-36A (AACC) amphibious assault ship crane, 10-5
D Designations, guided missile and rocket, 9-27 Diagrams, 5-11 Directing taxiing aircraft, 11-6 to 11-7
E Echo principles, 8-16 to 8-17 Electrical failures, 5-18 Electrical power, emergency, 8-3 Electrical system hardware, aircraft, 6-23 to 6-25
p. 499
Index-8 Electronic countermeasures, 8-19 Emergency recovery equipment, 11-9 to 11-10 Engine identification, 7-13 to 7-16 Engine instruments, 8-8 to 8-10 Equipment color and marking of, 11-3 to 11-5 Equipment, types of, 10-1 to 10-15 handling equipment, 10-1 to 10-3 servicing equipment, 10-7 to 10-12 Exhaust gas temperature indicator, 8-8 Explosives, high and low, 9-3 Extinguishing agents, 13-3 to 13-6 carbon dioxide, 13-4 to 13-5 chemical foam (AFFF), 13-4 dry chemical (PKP), 13-5 to 13-6 Halon 13-5 water, 13-4 to 13-5
F Fasteners, threaded, 6-15 Fire, chemistry of, 13-1 to13-3 Fire hazards, aircraft, 13-11 to 13-13 Fire-extinguisher cartridge, aircraft, 9-64 Fire-fighting and rescue vehicles, aircraft, 13-10 to 13-11 Firefighting equipment, 13-6 to 13-9 Firefighting techniques, 13-19 to 13-24 Firemain system aboard ship, 13-6 Fixed wing aircraft, 3-5 to 3-6 Flat head pins 6-19 Flexible connectors/clamps, 6-15 Flight clothing, 12-1 to 12-16 Flight coveralls (summer weight), 12-2 Flight, forces affecting, 3-4 drag, 3-4 lift, 3-4 thrust, 3-4 weight, 3-4 Flotation assembly, 11-3 Fluid contamination, 5-43 to 5-44 Fluid line identification, 13-16 to 13-18 Fluid sampling, 5-38 to 5-39 Forklift truck, 10-7 Fuel pressure indicator, 8-7 Fuel quantity indicator, 8-9 Fuels, types and identifying characteristics of various, 13-11 to 13-12
G Gas turbine engines, 7-3 to 7-7 General aircraft maintenance, 5-1 to 5-52 aircraft jacking, 5-30 to 5-32 aircraft drawings, 5-6 aircraft hoisting slings, 5-26 to 5-27
p. 500
Index-9 analysis methods, 5-45 axle jacks, 5-30 diagrams, 5-11 electrical failures, 5-18 fluid contamination, 5-43 to 5-44 fluid sampling, 5-38 to 5-39 general hazards, 5-34 to 5-35 inorganic solid contamination, 5-43 interpretation of drawings, 5-8 jacking procedures, 5-35 to 5-38 lubrication, 5-19 lubricants, 5-19 to 5-25 methods of application, 5-21 maintenance practices, 5-40 to 5-41 maintenance procedures, 5-39 to 5-40 meaning of lines, 5-6 metallic contamination, 5-43 occupational awareness, 5-3 organic contamination, 5-42 particulate contamination, 5-41 to 5-42 portable oil diagnostic system, 5-46 to 5-47 preoperational inspection, 5-33 quality assurance (QA), 5-2 sampling points, 5-44 to 5-45 testing and operational checks, 5-17 tool containers, 5-1 tool control program, 5-1 troubleshooting aircraft systems, 5-13 troubleshooting procedures types of contamination, 5-41 wire rope, 5-28 to 5-29 work center responsibilities, 5-3 General hazards, 5-34 to 5-35 Global positioning system (GPS), 8-14 to 8-15 Glossary, AI-1 to AI-7 Gloves, flight, 12-4 to 12-5 Grumman Hawkeye, E-2, 2-26 Grumman Greyhound, C-2, 2-26 Grumman Prowler, EA-6B, 2-24 Guided missile and rocket designations, 9-27 Guided missile launchers, 9-45 to 9-55 Guided missiles, air-launched, 9-25 to 9-33 Advanced Medium Range Air-to-Air Missile (AMRAAM), 9-38 to 9-39 Harpoon, 9-33 to 9-35 High-Speed Antiradiation Missile (HARM), 9-39 to 9-40 Maverick, 9-39 Sidewinder, 9-35 to 9-36 Sparrow, 9-32 to 9-33 Guns, 20-mm automatic aircraft, 9-55 to 9-58 Gyro compass, 8-12 Gyroscopes, 8-11 to 8-12
p. 501
Index-10
H Hand signals, 11-10 and 11-23 HARM (High-Speed Antiradiation Missile), 9-39 to 9-40 Helicopter handling, 11-21 Helicopter rescue strop, 12-53 Helmet(s), 12-5 to 12-6 Horizontal situation indicator, 8-12 Hydraulic jacks, 10-14 Hydraulic pressure indicator, 8-7 to 8-8 Hydraulic power supply, 10-10
I IFF (identification friend or foe), 8-18 to 8-19 Illumination devices, hand-held, 9-58 to 9-63 Impulse and delay cartridges, 9-64 Inorganic solid contamination, 5-43 Interpretation of drawings, 5-8
J Jacking procedures, 5-35 to 5-38 Jet propulsion engines, 7-2 to 7-12 gas turbine engines, 7-3 to 7-7 rocket engines, 7-1 to 7-3
L Landing gear, fixed-wing aircraft, 4-12 to 4-13 Landing gear group, rotary-wing aircraft, 4-16 Laser guided bombs, 9-14 to 9-16 Leadership, 1-20 Life preservers, 12-36 Life preserver assembly LPU-32/P, 12-37 to 12-38 Life preserver assembly LPU-34/P, 12-38 to 12-39 Life preserver assembly LPU-36/P, 12-39 to 12-40 Life rafts, 12-40 to 12-43 multiplace life rafts, 12-41 to 12-43 one-man life raft, 12-40 to 12-41 Lockheed Hercules, C-130, 2-27 Lockheed Martin Lightning, F-35, 2-23 Lockheed Orion, P-3, 2-25 Lubrication, 5-19 Lubricants, 5-19 to 5-25 methods of application, 5-21
M MAD (magnetic anomaly detection), 8-20 Magnetic (standby) compass, 8-12 Maintenance practices, 5-40 to 5-41 Maintenance procedures, 5-39 to 5-40 Maintenance requirements, 10-15 to 10-16 Maintenance platforms, 10-14 to 10-15
p. 502
Index-11 McDonnell-Douglas Goshawk, T-45, 2-31 McDonnell-Douglas Harrier II, AV-8, 2-24 McDonnell-Douglas Hornet, F/A-18, 2-23 Meaning of lines, 5-6 Metallic contamination, 5-43 Metallic materials, 4-22 to 4-23 Mines, aircraft laid, 9-17 to 9-18 Mk 62, 9-17 Mk 65, 9-18 Mission of naval aviation, 1-1 to 1-2 history of naval aviation 1-2 to 1-12 description of aviation ratings, 1-14 to 1-19 historic events of naval aviation, 1-2 to 1-12 history of the airman rate, 1-12 history of naval aviation, 1-2 to 1-12 leadership, 1-20 major naval aviation battles, 1-2 to 1-12 military and professional requirements, 1-20 Navy training courses, 1-20 sources of information, 1-20 studying for advancement, 1-20 training, 1-19 to 1-20 Motion, laws of, 3-1 to 3-2 Newton's first law of motion, 3-1 Newton's second law of motion, 3-1 Newton's third law of motion, 3-2 Multiengine aircraft handling, 11-20 to 11-21
N Naval Aircrewman (AW), 1-18 Aircrewman Mechanical (AWF) , 1-18 Aircrewman Operator (AWO), 1-18 Aircrewman Tactical Helicopter (AWR), 1-18 Aircrewman Helicopter (AWS), 1-18 Aircrewman Avionics (AWV), 1-18 Naval air facility, 2-9 Naval air station (NAS) organization, 2-3 to 2-9 administration department, 2-4 air operations department, 2-5 comptroller department, 2-4 dental department, 2-5 fleet readiness center, 2-6 to 2-8 medical department, 2-5 Naval aviation depots, 2-9 public works department, 2-5 security department, 2-4 to 2-5 supply department, 2-5 weapons department, 2-5 Naval aviation, history of, 1-2 to 1-12 Naval aviation, the mission of, 1-1 to 1-2 Navigational instruments, 8-12
p. 503
Index-12 Nitrogen service unit (NAN-4), 10-12 Nonmetallic materials, 4-23 Nuts, 6-10 to 6-11 nonself-locking nuts, 6-11 self-locking nuts, 6-11
O Occupational awareness, 5-3 Oil pressure indicator, 8-7 Ordnance, aircraft, 9-1 to 9-77 Ordnance, identification and marking of, 9-5 Organic contamination, 5-42 Organization of naval aviation, 2-1 to 2-31 administration department, 2-4 air department, 2-16 to 2-18 air operations department, 2-5 aircraft intermediate maintenance department (afloat), 2-19 to 2-20 aircraft squadron departments, 2-12 to 2-14 carrier air wing, 2-15 to 2-17 carrier divisions, 2-19 to 2-20 carrier squadrons, 2-9 to 2-10 commanding officer (CO), 2-11 composite squadrons, 2-10 comptroller department, 2-4 dental department, 2-5 dental department, 2-18 designation and types of naval aircraft, 2-21 to 2-31 engineering department, 2-18 executive officer (XO), 2-11 maintenance administration, 2-13 maintenance/material control officer, 2-12 maintenance officer, 2-11 Organization of naval aviation—Continued medical department, 2-5 medical department, 2-18 naval air facility, 2-9 naval air station (NAS) organization, 2-3 to 2-7 naval aviation chain of command, 2-2 naval aviation depots, 2-9 navigation department, 2-18 noncombatant squadrons, 2-10 operations department, 2-12 organization of a squadron, 2-10 to 2-14 organization of an aircraft carrier, 2-14 to 2-20 patrol squadrons, 2-10 public works department, 2-5 quality assurance/analysis, 2-7 security department, 2-4 to 2-5 supply department, 2-5 supply department, 2-18 types of divisions, 2-13
p. 504
Index-13 types of squadrons, 2-9 to 2-10 typical carrier schedule, 2-20 weapons department, 2-5 and 2-18 Oxygen servicing unit, 10-11
P Parachute container, 12-23 Parachute harnesses, 12-23 to 12-24 Parachutes, 12-17 to 12-35 Particulate contamination, 5-41 to 5-42 Personnel escape device cartridges, 9-64 Pilot chute, 12-21 Pitot-static system, 8-5 to 8-6 airspeed and mach number indicator, 8-6 to 8-7 altimeter, 8-6 rate of climb, 8-7 Plane-handling crews, 11-4 Portable oil diagnostic system, 5-46 to 5-47 Power generators, emergency, 8-3 to 8-4 Preoperational inspection, 5-33 Principles of flight, 3-1 to 3-8 airflow around an airfoil, 3-3 to 3-4 airfoil, the, 3-3 to 3-4 airfoil terminology, 3-3 Bernoulle's principle, 3-2 directional control, 3-7 drag, 3-4 forces affecting flight, 3-4 hovering, 3-7 lateral axis, 3-5 laws of motion, 3-1 to 3-2 lift, 3-4 and 3-6 to 3-7 longitudinal axis, 3-5 Newton's first law of motion, 3-1 Newton's second law of motion, 3-2 Newton's third law of motion, 3-2 physical laws affecting aerodynamics, 3-1 to 3-2 rotational axes, 3-5 to 3-6 thrust, 3-4 torque reaction, 3-7 to 3-8 weight, 3-4 vertical axis, 3-5 Protective clothing, 13-9 to 13-10 Pyrotechnics, 9-58 to 9-62
Q Quality assurance (QA), 5-2
R Radar, 8-16 to 8-18 References, AII-1 to AII-3
p. 505
Index-14 Rescue equipment, 12-53 to 12-56 Rivets, blind, 6-3 Rivets, solid, 6-1 dimpled rivets, 6-2 plain rivets, 6-2 raised cross rivets, 6-2 raised dashes rivets, 6-2 raised teat rivets, 6-2 Rivnuts, 6-5 Rocket engines, 7-1 to 7-3 Rotational axes, 3-5 lateral axis, 3-5 longitudinal axis, 3-5 vertical axis, 3-5 Rotor head, 4-18
S Safety precautions, general flight deck, 11-18 Safety precautions, power plant, 7-16 Sampling points, 5-44 to 5-45 Schedule, typical carrier, 2-20 Schools, Navy, 1-13 Screws, 6-13 self-tapping screws, 6-13 structural screws, 6-13 Shipboard fire-fighting vehicle, A/S32P-25, 10-5 to 10-6 Sikorsky Sea Hawk, H-60, 2-28 Sikorsky Sea Stallion, H-53, 2-28 Snap rings, 6-19 Sonobuoys, 8-19 to 8-20 Spotting aircraft, 11-9 Squadron, organization of a, 2-10 to 2-14 aircraft squadron departments, 2-12 to 2-13 commanding officer (CO), 2-11 executive officer (XO), 2-11 maintenance administration, 2-13 maintenance/material control officer, 2-12 maintenance officer, 2-11 quality assurance analysis, 2-l3 types of divisions, 2-13 to 2-14 Squadrons, types of, 2-9 to 2-10 carrier squadrons, 2-9 to 2-10 composite squadrons, 2-10 patrol squadrons, 2-10 Structural stress, 4-19 to 4-20 bending, 4-20 compression, 4-20 shear, 4-20 tension, 4-20 torsion, 4-21 varying stress, 4-21
p. 506
Index-15 Support equipment, 10-1 to 10-20 A/M24M-5 static frequency converter, 10-9 A/M26U-4 (NAN-4) nitrogen servicing unit, 10-12 A/M32C-21 air-conditioner, 10-13 A/M32C-23 Large-Land-Based Air-Conditioner, 10-13 A/M27T-14 electrical hydraulic portable power supply, 10-10 A/M27T-15 diesel hydraulic portable power supply, 10-11 A/S32A-31A aircraft towing tractor, 10-1 A/S32A-32 tow tractor, 10-2 A/S32A-35A (CVCC) aircraft crash and salvage crane, 10-4 A/S32A-36A (CVCC) aircraft crash and salvage crane, 10-5 A/S32A-45 mid-range tow tractor (MRTT), 10-3 A/S32A-48 large land-based tow tractor, 10-3 A/S32M-19, heavy maintenance crane (HMC), 10-6 A/S32P-25 shipboard fire-fighting vehicle, 10-5 A/U26U-1 oxygen servicing unit, 10-11 catapult launching, 11-6 cold weather procedures, 11-14 to 11-15 general safety precautions for handling aircraft aboard carriers, 11-18 to 11-19 hazards of SE, 11-2 helicopter handling, 11-22 helicopter tie-down and securing procedures, 11-22 heavy weather procedures, 11-13 to 11-14 hydraulic jacks, 10-14 landing procedure, 11-7 to 11-8 launching procedure, 11-6 to 11-7 maintenance requirements, 10-15 MSU-200NAV Air Start Unit, 10-9 multiengine aircraft handling 11-20 to 11-21 NC-10C mobile electric power plant, 10-8 normal weather conditions, 11-13 operating equipment around aircraft, 11-1 to 11-2 plane-handling crews, 11-4 preoperational maintenance, 10-15 qualifications for operating SE, 10-16 to 10-17 recovery, 11-8 securing aircraft aboard carriers, 11-12 securing aircraft ashore, 11-21 servicing equipment, 10-7 to 10-12 (SHH) shipboard helo handler, 10-2 spotting aircraft, 11-9 TMU 70 low-loss, closed-loop, liquid oxygen storage tank, 10-12 Survival equipment, personal, 12-46 to 12-56
T TACAN (tactical air navigation system), 8-14 Tachometer, 8-9 Tail rotor assembly, 4-18 to 4-19 pylon, 4-18 rotary rudder blades, 4-17 to 4-18 rotary rudder head, 4-18
p. 507
Index-16 Taper pins, 6-19 Testing and operational checks, 5-17 Tool containers, 5-1 Tool control program, 5-1 Tractors, 10-1 Training, 1-19 to 1-20 Training courses, Navy, 1-20 Troubleshooting aircraft systems, 5-13 Troubleshooting procedures, 5-13 Turbine inlet temperature indicator, 8-8 Turn and bank indicator, 8-12 Turnbuckles, 6-21 to 6-22 Turnlock fasteners, 6-14 to 6-15 Camloc fasteners, 6-14 to 6-15 Dzus fasteners, 6-15 Types of contamination, 5-41
V Vertical axis, 3-5 Vertical scale indicator, 7-9 to 7-10
W Washers, 6-14 ball socket washers, 6-14 countersunk plain washers, 6-14 special washers, 6-14 tapper pin washers, 6-14 Wire rope, 5-28 to 5-29 Work center responsibilities, 5-3
p. 508
End of Book Questions Chapter 1 Mission and History of Naval Aviation Introduction
1-1. In what year was the Navy first interested in airplanes as a naval weapon?
A. 1888 B. 1898 C. 1910 D. 1911
1-2. Who staged the first demonstration of the new flying machine?
A. Glenn brothers B. Wright brothers C. Ely brothers D. Curtiss brothers
1-3. Eugene Ely first flew a biplane from a wooden platform off of what ship?
A. USS Pennsylvania B. USS Langley C. USS Birmingham D. USS Jupiter
1-4. What was the name of the Navy's first angled deck aircraft carrier?
A. USS Antietam B. USS Pennsylvania C. USS Langley D. USS Lexington
1-5. What was the first operationally equipped jet plane in history to fly faster than 1,000 mph?
A. F9F-2/5 Panther B. FJ-1 Fury C. F8U-1 Crusader D. F2H-1 Banshee
1-6. In 1959, four naval aviators were selected as prospective astronauts for what space project?
A. Apollo B. Gemini C. Saturn D. Mercury
p. 509
1-7. Who was the first American and naval aviator to go into space?
A. Neal Armstrong B. Alan B. Shepard Jr. C. Edwin Aldrin D. Michael Collins
1-8. What major battle in 1942 was the first of opposing ships NOT making contact with each other?
A. Iwo Jima B. Coral Sea C. Midway D. Guadalcanal
1-9. In October 1943, the Navy accepted its first helicopter. What designation was assigned to that helicopter?
A. F6F B. YR-4B C. PB4Y D. DTBM
1-10. The Westinghouse 19A jet engine was developed for the Navy in what year?
A. 1943 B. 1953 C. 1963 D. 1973
1-11. What rating makes visual and instrumental observations of weather and sea conditions?
A. AB B. AC C. AZ D. AG
1-12. What rating packs and rigs parachutes and life rafts?
A. AG B. AW C. PR D. AO
1-13. Which of the following tasks is performed by the ABH rating?
A. Direct the movement and spotting of aircraft B. Rig, inspect, and proof-load cables and fittings C. Operate catapult launch and retract panels D. Operate aviation fueling systems
p. 510
1-14. What rating maintains and repairs gasoline engines and associated automotive systems?
A. AM B. AS C. AE D. AT
1-15. In what total number of service ratings is the Aviation Boatswain's Mate (AB) divided?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
1-16. Which of the following ratings operates, maintains, and performs maintenance on aviation fueling and lubricating oil systems?
A. ABE B. ABF C. ABH D. AWF
1-17. What year was the Airman rate established?
A. 1938 B. 1948 C. 1956 D. D966
1-18. What year was the paygrades E-8 and E-9 (senior and master chief petty officer) established?
A. 1911 B. 1942 C. 1948 D. 1958
1-19. What year was the Naval Aviation Museum established at the Naval Air Station, Pensacola, Florida?
A. 1942 B. 1952 C. 1962 D. 1972
1-20. What ship conducted contingent operations during the Iranian hostage crisis?
A. USS Saratoga B. USS Lexington C. USS Kitty Hawk D. USS Washington
p. 511
1-21. How many service ratings is the AW rate made up of?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7
1-22. Which of the following rates performs intermediate-level maintenance on aviation electronic components?
A. AM B. AT(I) C. AT(O) D. AWO
1-23. Which Battle in 1942 caused the Japanese to abandon their attempt to land at Port Moresby?
A. Champlain B. Guadalcanal C. Midway D. Coral Sea
1-24. Which of the following ratings, fit and maintain oxygen masks, flight clothing, and anti-exposure suits?
A. AME B. PR C. AT D. AM
p. 512
End of Book Questions Chapter 2 Organization of Naval Aviation Mission and History of Naval Aviation
2-1. Who is the senior officer in the Department of the Navy?
A. AMO B. CNO C. CO D. MMCO
2-2. What officer is next in the chain of command after the executive officer?
A. CO B. DO C. MO D. SO
2-3. What person is next in the chain of command after the division Chief?
A. AMO B. CO C. DCPO D. DO
2-4. What is the highest level of maintenance performed at a naval air station?
A. Depot B. Intermediate C. Organizational D. Scheduled
2-5. What department is responsible for preventing sabotage, espionage, theft, and fire?
A. Administration B. Comptroller C. Human Resources D. Security
2-6. What department is responsible for mail distribution, communications, and maintenance of personnel files?
A. Admin B. Comptroller C. Human Resources D. Security
p. 513
2-7. What department consists of utilities, transportation, and engineering?
A. Admin B. Comptroller C. Public works D. Supply
2-8. What department’s primary purpose is preventing defects?
A. Admin B. Air operations C. Quality assurance D. Security
2-9. What level of maintenance is performed by a squadron?
A. Depot B. Intermediate C. Organizational D. TBM
2-10. What level of maintenance is performed at a Naval Air Facility (NAF)?
A. Organizational and intermediate B. Organizational and depot C. Intermediate and depot D. Scheduled and organizational
2-11. What type of squadron’s mission is strike fighter?
A. VP B. VFA C. VAQ D. VAW
2-12. What type of squadron provides training to new pilots?
A. VP B. VT C. VX D. VR
2-13. What type of squadron’s mission is airborne early-warning?
A. HS B. HSM C. VFA D. VAW
p. 514
2-14. What officer in the maintenance department is responsible for production?
A. CO B. MO C. MMCO D. DO
2-15. In what division is the power plants branch?
A. Maintenance admin B. Aircraft C. Avionics D. Line
2-16. In what division is the plane captains’ branch?
A. Maintenance admin B. Aircraft C. Avionics D. Line
2-17. In what division is the airframes branch?
A. Maintenance admin B. Aircraft C. Avionics D. Line
2-18. In what department is responsible for readiness and tactical efficiency of the squadron?
A. Operations B. Quality assurance C. Safety D. Target
2-19. In what department is the avionics/armament division?
A. Administrative B. Maintenance C. Safety D. Target
2-20. In what department is Naval Air Training and Operating Procedures (NATOPS)?
A. Administrative B. Maintenance C. Safety D. Target
p. 515
2-21. In what division is the electronics branch?
A. Admin B. Aircraft C. Avionics/Armament D. Line
2-22. What division on an aircraft carrier is responsible for the maintenance of arresting gear?
A. V-1 B. V-2 C. V-3 D. V-4
2-23. What division on an aircraft carrier is responsible for aircraft crash, fire, and rescue?
A. V-1 B. V-2 C. V-3 D. V-4
2-24. What division on an aircraft carrier is responsible for the handling of all aircraft on the flight deck?
A. V-1 B. V-2 C. V-3 D. V-4
2-25. What division on an aircraft carrier is responsible for operation and upkeep of the carrier’s aviation fuel system?
A. V-1 B. V-2 C. V-3 D. V-4
2-26. What department is responsible for all machinery, propulsion, ventilation, water supply, piping systems, electrical systems, and electronic devices on board the ship?
A. Air B. AIMD C. Dental D. Engineering
2-27. What department is responsible to the CO for the safe navigation and piloting of the aircraft carrier?
A. Air B. AIMD C. Engineering D. Navigation
p. 516
2-28. In what AIMD division is powerplants?
A. IM1 B. IM2 C. IM3 D. IM4
2-29. In what AIMD division is QA?
A. IM1 B. IM2 C. IM3 D. IM4
2-30. In what AIMD division is SE?
A. IM1 B. IM2 C. IM3 D. IM4
2-31. In what AIMD division is avionics?
A. IM1 B. IM2 C. IM3 D. IM4
2-32. In what AIMD division is airframes?
A. IM1 B. IM2 C. IM3 D. IM4
2-33. What period of an aircraft carrier cycle is the ship checked for satisfactory operation of machinery, equipment, and systems?
A. Deployment B. Repair and refitting C. Shakedown D. Yard
2-34. What period of an aircraft carrier cycle is the carrier refitted and re-supplied?
A. Deployment B. Home port C. Shakedown D. Tactical
p. 517
2-35. What is the designation of a transport aircraft?
A. C B. E C. F D. T
2-36. What is the designation of a research aircraft?
A. C B. E C. T D. X
2-37. What is the designation of a tanker aircraft?
A. A B. E C. K D. T
2-38. What is the designation of a cold weather aircraft?
A. L B. P C. Q D. R
2-39. Who is the manufacturer of the P-8 Poseidon?
A. Boeing B. Grumman C. Lockheed D. North American
2-40. Who is the manufacturer of the C-40 Clipper?
A. Boeing B. Grumman C. Lockheed D. North American
2-41. Who is the manufacturer of the UH-1 Huey?
A. Beech B. Bell C. Grumman D. Lockheed
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2-42. Who is the manufacturer of the C-130 Hercules?
A. Beech B. Bell C. Lockheed D. North American
2-43. Which of the following aircraft was manufactured by McDonnell-Douglas?
A. AV-8 Harrier B. E-2 Hawkeye C. T-34 Mentor D. T-6 Texan
2-44. Which of the following aircraft was manufactured by Beech?
A. AV-8 Harrier B. E-2 Hawkeye C. T-34 Mentor D. T-45 Goshawk
2-45. Which of the following aircraft was manufactured by Grumman?
A. AV-8 Harrier B. E-2 Hawkeye C. T-34 Mentor D. T-6 Texan
2-46. What is the design number of the Orion?
A. C-2 B. C-12 C. P-3 D. P-8
2-47. What is the design number of the Sea Stallion?
A. H-53 B. H-57 C. F/A-18 D. F-35
2-48. What is the design number of the Greyhound?
A. AV-8 B. AH-1 C. C-2 D. E-2
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2-49. What is the design number of the Jet Ranger?
A. AV-8 B. AH-1 C. H-57 D. H-60
2-50. What aircraft is armed with the M61A1 (20 mm) gun?
A. F/A-18 B. F-35 C. C-12 D. C-130
2-51. What aircraft is armed with the GAU-22 25 mm gun?
A. F/A-18 B. F-35 C. C-12 D. C-130
2-52. What aircraft was originally designed based on a French engine concept, which was adopted and improved upon by the British?
A. AV-8 B. C-12 C. C-130 D. F/A-18
2-53. What aircraft has a 24-foot revolving radar dish for tracking, detecting, or directing targets?
A. AV-8 B. AH-1 C. C-2 D. E-2
2-54. What aircraft can be armed with 2 x 7.62 mm M60 machine guns, or 2 x 7.62 mm GAU-17/A machine guns?
A. AV-8 B. EA-6 C. UH-1 D. T-6
2-55. What aircraft’s primary mission is to provide intermediate and advanced strike fighter training?
A. AV-8 B. EA-6 C. T-45 D. T-6
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End of Book Questions Chapter 3 Principles of Flight
3-1. What is the definition of motion?
A. The act or process of changing place or position B. The act or process of achieving inertia C. The overcoming of force D. The resistance to force
3-2. Which of the following terms refers to Newton's first law of motion?
A. Force B. Action and reaction C. Inertia D. Gravity
3-3. On a fixed wing aircraft, which of the following components (or more applicable/appropriate wording; not sure what all alts have in common) is an example of an airfoil?
A. Landing gear B. Nose C. Rotor blade D. Wing
3-4. What is the front edge or surface of the airfoil?
A. Camber B. Chord line C. Leading edge D. Trailing edge
3-5. What is the imaginary straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil?
A. Camber B. Chord line C. Leading edge D. Trailing edge
3-6. What is the rear edge or surface of the airfoil?
A. Camber B. Chord line C. Leading edge D. Trailing edge
p. 521
3-7. What is the curve of departure from a straight line from the leading edge to the trailing edge of an airfoil?
A. Camber B. Chord line C. Leading edge D. Trailing edge
3-8. What force acts in an upward direction to support the aircraft in the air?
A. Drag B. Lift C. Thrust D. Weight
3-9. What force acts downward on the aircraft?
A. Drag B. Lift C. Thrust D. Weight
3-10. What force tends to hold an aircraft back?
A. Drag B. Lift C. Thrust D. Weight
3-11. What force is developed by the aircraft’s engines?
A. Drag B. Lift C. Thrust D. Weight
3-12. What axis is the pivot point about which an aircraft rolls?
A. Lateral B. Longitudinal C. Upward D. Vertical
3-13. What axis runs from the top to the bottom of an aircraft?
A. Lateral B. Longitudinal C. Upward D. Vertical
p. 522
3-14. What axis is the pivot point about which the aircraft pitches?
A. Lateral B. Longitudinal C. Upward D. Vertical
3-15. What movement is associated with the vertical axis?
A. Pitch B. Roll C. Turn D. Yaw
3-16. What movement is associated with the lateral axis?
A. Pitch B. Roll C. Turn D. Yaw
3-17. What movement is associated with the longitudinal axis?
A. Pitch B. Roll C. Turn D. Yaw
3-18. What component provides motion on an aircraft?
A. Engine B. Landing gear C. Auxiliary Power Unit (APU) D. Wing
3-19. What reaction happens when the helicopter’s main rotor turns in one direction, and the body of the helicopter rotates in the opposite direction?
A. Drag B. Lift C. Thrust D. Torque
3-20. What component does the pilot tilt to control the direction of flight in a helicopter?
A. Main rotor B. Pedal C. Tail D. Wing
p. 523
3-21. By what method is lift changed on a helicopter?
A. By increasing the drag B. By decreasing the drag C. By increasing the angle of attack D. By decreasing the angle of attack
3-22. What term is defined as maintaining a position above a fixed spot on the ground?
A. Angle of attack B. Hovering C. Lift D. Thrust
3-23. Changing the angle of attack cause the aircraft to pivot on what axis?
A. Horizontal or lift B. Lateral or pitch C. Longitudinal or roll D. Vertical or yaw
3-24. When you lower the right wing of the aircraft and the left wing rises, on what axis will the aircraft pivot?
A. Horizontal or lift B. Lateral or pitch C. Longitudinal or roll D. Vertical or yaw
p. 524
End of Book Questions Chapter 4 Aircraft Basic Construction
4-1. What advantage does the helicopter has over conventional aircraft?
A. Lift and control are independent of forward speed B. Lift and control are dependent on forward speed C. Speed and forward flight are dependent on roll D. Lift and speed are dependent on roll
4-2. What aircraft structure is designed to transmit engine loads, stresses, and vibrations to the aircraft structure?
A. Fuselage B. Landing gear C. Nacelle D. Tires
4-3. On a semimonocoque fuselage, what component absorbs the primary bending loads?
A. Engine mounts B. Fuselage C. Landing gear D. Longerons
4-4. What is the main structure on an aircraft to which all other units attach?
A. Engine mount B. Fuselage C. Nacelle D. Wing
4-5. How many classes is the monocoque fuselage divided into?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
4-6. Fighter and small aircraft fuselages are usually constructed in how many sections?
A. Two or less B. Two or more C. Three or less D. Three or more
p. 525
4-7. What is a nacelle’s primary use?
A. Houses the engine B. Houses the landing gear C. Houses the stabilizer D. Houses the wing
4-8. What is used to operate the rudder on all types of aircraft?
A. Pedals B. Speed brakes C. Trim tabs D. Landing gear
4-9. What is used to give the aircraft extra lift?
A. Pedals B. Speed brakes C. Trim tabs D. Wing flaps
4-10. What is used to reduce the speed of an aircraft?
A. Pedals B. Speed brakes C. Trim tabs D. Wing flaps
4-11. In what manner is most aircraft landing gear actuated?
A. Electrically B. Hydraulically C. Manually D. Pneumatically
4-12. What does a snubber on the arresting gear of an aircraft meter?
A. Electricity B. Fire C. Hydraulic fluid D. Water
4-13. What allows the aircraft to be secured to the carrier deck for full-power turnup of the engine prior to takeoff?
A. Holdback assembly B. Lateral C. Snubb D. Tie down chain
p. 526
4-14. What does the main landing gear of a helicopter consist of?
A. Forward and aft double-wheel assemblies B. Left and right double-wheel assemblies C. Forward and aft single-wheel assemblies D. Left and right single-wheel assemblies
4-15. How many degrees can a tail wheel on a helicopter rotate?
A. 180 B. 360 C. 120 D. 320
4-16. What provides deicing to an H-60 main rotor blade?
A. Heater coil B. Electronic pressure C. Hydraulic pressure D. Heater mat
4-17. What stress on an aircraft is created when force is moved toward each other to squeeze the material?
A. Bending B. Compression C. Shear D. Tension
4-18. What stress is caused by stretching or pulling at an aircraft?
A. Bending B. Compression C. Shear D. Tension
4-19. Cutting a piece of paper with a pair of scissors is an example of what stress?
A. Bending B. Compression C. Shear D. Tension
4-20. What stress is a result of a twisting force?
A. Bending B. Compression C. Tension D. Torsion
p. 527
End of Book Questions Chapter 5 General Aircraft Maintenance
5-1. Ensuring that tools are procured and issued in a controlled manner consistent with the approved tool control plan is the responsibility of what officer?
A. The maintenance officer B. The material control officer C. The quality assurance officer D. The assistant maintenance officer
5-2. Which of the following reports should be used to report poor quality tools to FLEMATSUPPO?
A. EI B. HMR C. CAT I QDR D. CAT II QDR
5-3. Upon task assignment, you must record the tool container number on what copy of the VIDS/MAF?
A. Copy 1 B. Copy 2 C. Copy 3 D. Copy 5
5-4. Who is responsible for training work center personnel in the use of Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDSs)?
A. The safety officer B. The division officer C. The work center supervisor D. The maintenance control chief
5-5. What system/program is used to acquire, store, and disseminate data on hazardous materials procured for use?
A. Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS) B. Navy Occupational Health and Safety (NAVOSH) C. Hazardous Material Information program (HMIP) D. Hazardous Material Information System (HMIS)
5-6. What section of a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) identifies personal protective equipment required?
A. Section II B. Section V C. Section VII D. Section VIII
p. 528
5-7. What safety term is used to indicate an operating procedure, practice, or condition, etc., that is essential to emphasize?
A. NOTE B. WARNING C. CAUTION D. ALERT
5-8. What type of drawing is used to show details of parts, components, and other objects?
A. Pictorial B. Orthographic C. Block D. Exploded View
5-9. Efficient troubleshooting of an electrically controlled hydraulic system may require you to use a multimeter for which of the following reasons?
A. Check frequency B. Check voltage and continuity C. Relieve the AE of solving the problems D. To read the electrical portion of a schematic
5-10. After conducting a visual inspection and an operational check, what troubleshooting step should be next?
A. Locate the trouble B. Isolate the trouble C. Correct the trouble D. Classify the trouble
5-11. You are troubleshooting a malfunction and conducting the final operational check. What is the minimum number of times the affected system must be actuated?
A. 5 B. 7 C. 3 D. 10
5-12. How many basic categories of malfunctions are there?
A. 5 B. 2 C. 4 D. 3
5-13. What is the total number of common methods used to apply lubricants?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
p. 529
5-14. Flush lubrication fittings are used for which of the following reasons?
A. To prevent interference with moving parts B. To reach areas that are normally easy access C. To reach areas that are normally hard to access D. To lubricate areas that do not require much lubrication
5-15. To determine the type of lubricant and equipment to be used in a given area of an aircraft, you should refer to which of the following publications?
A. MIM only B. MRC only C. Both 1 and 2 above D. COMNAVAIRFORINST 4790.2 (series)
5-16. How many forms of lubricants are there?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
5-17. Why are lubricants necessary in aircraft components?
A. To cool parts B. To minimize friction C. To prevent corrosion D. To prevent wear
5-18. What document should you consult for safety precautions for a specific lubricant?
A. NAVAIR 01-1A-509 B. Aircraft MRC C. Aircraft MIM D. Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS)
5-19. Which of the following is never a type of aircraft lifting sling?
A. Wire rope B. Snatch cable C. Fabric webbing D. Structural steel
5-20. To find load testing and inspection information on aircraft lifting slings, you should consult what publication?
A. NAVAIR 01-1A-17 B. NAVAIR 01-1A-20 C. NAVAIR 17-1-114 D. NAVAIR 17-15E-52
p. 530
5-21. A group of wires twisted together is known by what name?
A. A wire rope B. A strand C. A cable D. A core
5-22. In reference to a cable, what does the term "bird cage" mean?
A. A kink that has been pulled through in order to straighten a cable B. A cable that is manufactured to look like a bird cage C. A cable that is improperly stored D. A neatly coiled cable
5-23. You should examine and lubricate all lifting slings at least how often?
A. Once a week B. Twice a week C. Once a month D. Twice a month
5-24. Hoisting restrictions for a specific type of aircraft can be found in which of the following publications?
A. NAVAIR 01-1A-8 B. NAVAIR 01-1A-17 C. NAVAIR 15-02-500B D. Applicable MIM
5-25. What are the two types of aircraft jacks used by the Navy?
A. T-bar and camel B. Hand carried and T-bar C. Horseshoe and camel D. Axle and airframe (tripod)
5-26. Aircraft jacks are serviced with what type of fluid?
A. General-purpose oil B. Synthetic oil C. Aircraft hydraulic fluid D. Support equipment hydraulic fluid
5-27. A tripod jack consists of what total number of basic assemblies?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
p. 531
5-28. A leg extension kit for a variable height tripod jack will increase its effective height by what total amount of inches?
A. 6 B. 12 C. 18 D. 24
5-29. You are using three tripod jacks to jack an aircraft aboard a ship. What is the minimum number of tie-down chains that will be attached to all the jacks?
A. 3 B. 9 C. 12 D. 18
5-30. During jacking operation, the tie-down chain preload is too high when which of the following conditions exists?
A. The jack safety valve bypasses fluid B. The first stage locknut does not turn C. The tensioning grip cannot be rotated by hand D. The jack baseplate is seated flush with the deck
5-31. Special inspections for tripod jacks are required at what intervals?
A. Every 13 weeks B. Every 10 weeks C. Every 8 weeks D. Every 7 weeks
5-32. What is the maximum acceptable hydraulic fluid particulate level for naval aircraft?
A. Class 3 B. Class 5 C. Class 6 D. Class 10
5-33. What is the maximum acceptable hydraulic fluid particulate level for support equipment (SE)?
A. Class 3 B. Class 5 C. Class 6 D. Class 10
5-34. What is the primary use for MIL-PRF-46170D hydraulic fluid?
A. Extremely low surrounding temperatures B. Preservative hydraulic fluid C. Principal hydraulic fluid used in military aircraft D. Support equipment only
p. 532
5-35. What is the first step in periodic fluid surveillance?
A. Analyze fluid sample B. Certify cleanliness C. Obtain fluid sample D. Replace filter
5-36. What is the size of particulate matter measured in?
A. Centimeter B. Millimeter C. Megahertz D. Microns
5-37. What does the presence of air in a hydraulic system cause?
A. Abraded synthetic rubber seals B. Spongy response during system operation C. Undesired oxidation D. Rust-like corrosion
5-38. What does the presence of water in a hydraulic system cause?
A. Abraded synthetic rubber seals B. Spongy response during system operation C. Undesired oxidation D. Tight response during system operation
5-39. What is a physical point in a hydraulic system from which small amounts of hydraulic fluid are drawn to analyze it for contamination?
A. Fluid sampling point B. Fluid system point C. Fluid contamination point D. Fluid access point
5-40. Most fleet equipment is calibrated so that the smallest particle counted has an effective diameter of how many microns?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7
p. 533
End of Book Questions Chapter 6 Aircraft Hardware
6-1. What position of a rivet identification code identifies the length of the rivet?
A. First B. Second C. Third D. Fourth
6-2. A 5056 rivet is used to join magnesium alloy materials because of which of the following factors?
A. Tensile strength B. Cold working C. Heat resistance D. Corrosion resistance
6-3. Which of the following characteristics is NEVER a factor in the classification of solid rivets?
A. Size B. Color C. Material D. Head shape
6-4. Which of the following precautions should you take when using a ® (pin) rivet?
A. Never use them on thick sheets B. Never use them on aluminum alloys C. Never use them with an aluminum collar D. Never use them where the grip length is less than the shank diameter
6-5. What type of rivet is used for fastening thick-gauge sheets of metal together?
A. Solid B. Blind C. Shear D. Structural
6-6. When space on one side is too restricted to properly use a bucking bar, what type of rivet should you use?
A. Flat B. Solid C. Blind D. Hi-Shear®
p. 534
6-7. What type of fastener is used in an application for which a high strength, interference-free fastener is required?
A. Jo-Bolt® B. Lock-bolt C. Hi-Lok® D. Rivnut
6-8. What type of fastener has high strength and is used in applications for which access to only one side of the material is available?
A. Jo-Bolt® B. Lock-bolt C. Hi-Lok® D. Rivnut
6-9. Which of the following characteristics describes a rivnut?
A. Solid B. Square C. Oblong D. Hollow
6-10. What type of rivnut must be used on sealed floatation or pressurized compartments?
A. Open-end B. Closed-end C. Groove shanked D. Externally threaded
6-11. Which of the following fasteners has a shear and tensile strength equal to or greater than the requirements of AN or NAS bolts?
A. Lock-bolt B. Turnlock C. Rivnut D. Airloc
6-12. What metal is used in the construction of the threaded pins of Hi-Lok® fasteners?
A. Titanium B. Stainless C. Anodized 2024-T6 aluminum D. Cadmium-plated alloy steel
6-13. Which of the following is NEVER a head style of a Jo-Bolt®?
A. 100-degree flush B. Diamond recessed C. Hexagon protruding D. 100-degree flush millable
p. 535
6-14. What type of fastener is used on panels that are removed and reinstalled frequently for maintenance repairs?
A. Hi-Lok® B. Jo-Bolt® C. Turnlock D. Structural
6-15. What distance must the stud of a Camloc fastener be turned to release it without permitting re- engagement?
A. One-half turn clockwise B. One-fourth turn clockwise C. One-half turn counterclockwise D. One-fourth turn counterclockwise
6-16. Which of the following parts is used only on heavy-duty Dzus fasteners?
A. Pin B. Stud C. Spring D. Grommet
6-17. When you install a hose between two duct sections, what is the maximum allowable gap, in inches, between the duct ends?
A. 1/4 B. 3/8 C. 3/4 D. 7/8
6-18. A V-band coupling requires what minimum number of turns of safety wire?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
6-19. A flat-head pin used in a tie-rod terminal should be secured with what device?
A. Cotter pin B. Sheet spring nut C. Self-locking nut D. Safety wire
6-20. Aircraft nuts are divided into what two general groups?
A. Self-locking and nonself-locking B. Metal insert and fiber insert C. High temperature and common D. Ferrous and nonferrous
p. 536
6-21. Which of the following nuts is an example of an all-metal self-locking nut?
A. Wing B. Flexloc C. Elastic stop D. Internal wrenching
6-22. Which of the following types of nuts is designed to be used with cotter pins or safety wire?
A. Check B. Plate C. Castle D. Barrel
6-23. When an assembly is frequently removed, which of the following types of nuts should be used?
A. Wing B. Shear C. Klincher D. Sheet spring
6-24. What three types of screws are most commonly used in aircraft construction?
A. Machine, structural, and self-tapping B. Brazier-head, round-head, and common C. Self-tapping, Phillips, and common D. Structural, machine, and pan-head
6-25. Which of the following types of screws are as strong as bolts of the same size?
A. Setscrews B. Machine screws C. Structural screws D. Self-tapping screws
6-26. Flush-head screws are available in what degree(s) of head angles?
A. 82° only B. 82° and 100° only C. 82°, 100°, and 125° only D. 82°, 100°, 125°, and 145°
6-27. When replacing an original screw in a structure, you should never use which of the following screws?
A. Setscrew B. Machine screw C. Structural screw D. Self-tapping screw
p. 537
6-28. Aircraft cables have the center core twisted in one direction and the outer core in the opposite direction for what reason?
A. To make the cable rigid B. To make the cable stiffer C. To minimize the stretch or set D. To allow the strands to expand when cut
6-29. A piece of 7 x 19 cable has what total number of wires?
A. 133 B. 26 C. 19 D. 7
6-30. Terminal fittings are generally attached to the ends of cables by what method?
A. Swaging B. Welding C. Splicing D. Soldering
6-31. The size of a cable is determined by which of the following factors?
A. Lay B. Tension C. Diameter D. Strength
6-32. The turnbuckle is used to make what type of cable adjustments?
A. Minor adjustments to cable length only B. Minor adjustments to cable tension only C. Minor adjustments to cable length and tension D. Adjustments to cable threads
6-33. Adjustable connector links are used in what type of cable assemblies?
A. Very long B. Very short C. Thin D. Stretch
6-34. How many different types of cable guides are used throughout an aircraft?
A. Two B. Three C. Four D. Five
p. 538
6-35. A fairlead may be used to minimize cable whipping and what other action?
A. Sticking B. Binding C. Slacking D. Vibration in long cable runs
6-36. A grommet is manufactured from what material?
A. Rubber B. Aluminum C. Copper D. Felt
6-37. What device is used on cables or rods that must move through a pressurized bulkhead?
A. O-ring B. Grommet C. Pressure seal D. Back-up ring
6-38. What device changes cable direction and allows a cable to move with minimum friction?
A. Pulley B. Sector C. Quadrant D. Bell crank
6-39. A connector assembly consists of how many different parts?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
6-40. What device provides a means of fastening a wire to a terminal stud?
A. Connector B. Bonding wire C. Terminal D. Static discharger
6-41. What type of terminal is generally recommended for use on naval aircraft?
A. Crimped B. Soldered C. Twist-on D. Fused
p. 539
6-42. What type of terminal is usually used in emergencies only?
A. Crimped B. Soldered C. Twist on D. Fused
6-43. What type of connection is used to connect all metal parts of an aircraft to complete an electrical unit?
A. Terminal B. Static C. Bonding D. Fused
6-44. What component allows for the continuous satisfactory operation of onboard navigation and radio communication systems?
A. Bonding wires B. Connectors C. Terminals D. Static dischargers
6-45. What factor accounts for the majority of all fastener problems?
A. Fatigue failure B. Improper material C. Cross-threading D. Corrosive breakdown
6-46. Cotter pins are used to secure which of the following devices?
A. Bolts only B. Nuts only C. Screws only D. Bolts, nuts, and screws
6-47. What type of safety wire is used in high-temperature areas?
A. Bailing B. Brass C. Annealed copper D. Annealed, corrosion-resistant
6-48. What type of safety wire is used on valves and levers used for emergency operation of aircraft equipment?
A. Copper B. Brass C. Bailing D. Corrosion-resistant
p. 540
6-49. How many different methods are used for safetying a turnbuckle?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
6-50. How many times, if any, can a turnbarrel lock clip be reused?
A. One time B. Two times C. Three times D. It cannot be reused
6-51. How many pieces of safety wire are used when securing a turnbuckle using the wire-wrapped method?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
6-52. When you use the wire-wrapped method on a turnbuckle, each wire is wrapped how many times around the shank?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
p. 541
End of Book Questions Chapter 7 Aircraft Power Plants
7-1. What engine does NOT draw air from the outside to fuel the combustion process?
A. Gas turbine B. Rocket C. Turboprop D. Turboshaft
7-2. How many types of jet propulsion engines are there?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
7-3. How many major components make up a turbojet engine?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7
7-4. How many types of gas turbine engine are there?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
7-5. Which of Newton’s laws of motion explains the operation of jet propulsion?
A. First B. Third C. Fifth D. Seventh
7-6. What component is an opening in the front of the aircraft that allows outside air to enter the engine?
A. Inlet duct B. Compressor C. Combustion chamber D. Turbine
p. 542
7-7. Which of the following types of aircraft uses a turbojet engine?
A. H-57 B. F/A-18 C. T-6 D. C-130
7-8. What component is attached to the rear of the turbine assembly and is a tapered, cylinder- shaped outlet for the gases?
A. Inlet duct B. Compressor C. Combustion chamber D. Exhaust cone
7-9. What component is made up of a series of rotating blades and a row of stationary stator vanes?
A. Inlet duct B. Compressor C. Combustion chamber D. Exhaust cone
7-10. How many igniter plugs are usually on an engine?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
7-11. What section of a turbojet engine drives the compressor and accessories by extracting some of the energy and pressure from the combustion gases?
A. Inlet duct B. Compressor C. Combustion chamber D. Turbine
7-12. What engine was developed to provide the power requirements for aircraft of greater size, carrying capacity, range, and speed?
A. Rocket B. Turboprop C. Turborotor D. Turboshaft
7-13. How many major sections make up a turboprop engine?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
p. 543
7-14. What section of a turboprop engine consists of an axial-flow compressor, a combustion chamber, a multi-stage turbine, and an exhaust?
A. Power B. Reduction C. Torquemeter D. Tail
7-15. What assembly on a turboprop engine lowers the engine rpm within the range of efficient propeller rpm?
A. Power B. Reduction C. Torquemeter D. Tail
7-16. What type of engine has a high power-to-weight ratio and is widely used in helicopters?
A. Rocket B. Turbojet C. Turboprop D. Turboshaft
7-17. What control system on a gas turbine engine assists in cooling the engine?
A. Accessory B. Ignition C. Fuel control D. Lubrication
7-18. What component on an engine is the heart of the gas fuel system?
A. Accessory section B. Ignition system C. Fuel control D. Exhaust cone
7-19. For what do gas turbine engines use high voltage and a spark of high heat intensity?
A. Cooling B. Ignition C. Thrust D. Shutdown
7-20. How many different types of ignition systems are used on gas turbine engines?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
p. 544
7-21. What type of lubricant is used in all gas turbine engine lubrication systems?
A. AMS oil B. Synthetic oil C. Hydraulic fluid D. Synthetic hydraulic fluid
7-22. What section on a gas turbine engine is usually mounted beneath the compressor?
A. Fuel control B. Accessory C. Ignition D. Lubrication
7-23. What cycle is used to describe the gas turbine engine’s cycle?
A. Amber B. Braxton C. Brayton D. Camber
7-24. In the ANA Bulletin No. 306m Designation System, the number 30 is used for what branch of service?
A. Army B. Coast guard C. Air Force D. Navy
7-25. What symbol is used for a turbojet engine?
A. A B. J C. K D. T
7-26. What symbol is used for a turboprop engine?
A. A B. J C. K D. T
7-27. How many designation systems are used to identify aircraft power plants?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 6 D. 8
p. 545
7-28. What letter preceding the basic designation signifies a special designation?
A. A B. B C. X D. Z
7-29. What is the engine manufacturer symbol for United Aircraft of Canada Ltd.?
A. AD B. BA C. CA D. CP
7-30. What is the engine manufacturer symbol for AiResearch Division, Garrett Corp.?
A. BA B. GA C. LD D. MD
7-31. Without ear protection, persons exposed to sound intensities above what dB may suffer hearing damage?
A. 110 B. 120 C. 130 D. 140
7-32. What area on an aircraft produces the two most serious hazards, the high temperature and the high velocity of the tailpipe?
A. Exhaust B. Intake C. Landing gear D. Main rotor
7-33. What area on an aircraft develops enough suction to pull in an individual?
A. Exhaust B. Intake C. Landing gear D. Main rotor
7-34. Keeping aircraft and power plants in top operating condition is the principal function of what type of personnel?
A. Admin B. Maintenance C. Medical D. Security
p. 546
7-35. In the MIL-STD-1812 engine designation system, what number is used by the Navy?
A. 100 B. 200 C. 300 D. 400
p. 547
End of Book Questions Chapter 8 Aircraft Avionics
8-1. What maintains the battery in a charged state?
A. APU B. Alternator C. Electrolyte D. Generator
8-2. What provides a reserve source of electrical power for selected electrical systems?
A. APU B. Alternator C. Battery D. Generator
8-3. What are batteries usually enclosed in?
A. Grounded metal housing B. Ungrounded metal housing C. Grounded plastic housing D. Ungrounded plastic housing
8-4. What hazard is caused by spraying CO2 into a battery compartment?
A. The static electricity generated by the discharge of the extinguisher could explode the gases trapped in the battery compartment. B. The temperature generated by the discharge of the extinguisher could freeze the gases trapped in the battery compartment. C. The heat generated by the discharge of the extinguisher could burn the gases trapped in the battery compartment. D. The water generated by the discharge of the extinguisher could liquefy the gases trapped in the battery compartment.
8-5. What is the principal hazard in working with lead-acid batteries?
A. Burns B. Explosion C. Heat D. inhalation
8-6. What converts ac power to dc power?
A. Alternator B. APU C. Rectifier D. Generator
p. 548
8-7. What rating maintains the pitot-static system and most aircraft instruments?
A. AB B. AD C. AE D. AT
8-8. What amount of power is provided by the aircraft carrier electrical servicing system?
A. 200 Hz B. 400 Hz C. 600 Hz D. 800 Hz
8-9. What system is based on a radar wave transmission beamed toward the earth behind the aircraft?
A. Doppler B. INS C. TACAN D. UPS
8-10. What provides ground service and emergency power?
A. APU B. Carrier servicing system C. Generator D. Rectifier
8-11. What converts mechanical energy into electrical energy?
A. Battery B. Carrier servicing system C. Generator D. Rectifier
8-12. The pitot-static system consists of a pitot-static tube and how many indicators?
A. 1 B. 3 C. 5 D. 7
8-13. What indicator shows the height of the aircraft above sea level?
A. Airspeed B. Altimeter C. Rate-of-climb D. Tachometer
p. 549
8-14. What instrument shows the speed of the power section of a gas turbine engine?
A. Airspeed B. Altimeter C. Rate-of-climb D. Tachometer
8-15. What indicator shows the pilot the relative position of the aircraft compared to the earth's horizon?
A. Altimeter B. Angle of attack C. Attitude D. Airspeed
8-16. What range of frequencies are airborne long-range communications sets normally operated in?
A. 3 MHz to 30 MHz B. 30 MHz to 3 GHz C. 6 MHz to 40 MHz D. 40 MHz to 6 GHz
8-17. What new and complex group of electronic navigational equipment is now in use in naval aviation?
A. Doppler B. Navigation computers C. GPS D. TACAN
8-18. What radio navigational set provides slant range and relative bearing to a transmitting ground (surface) station?
A. Doppler B. GPS C. TACAN D. UPS
8-19. What is an automatic aid to navigation that is independent of outside references?
A. Doppler B. INS C. TACAN D. UPS
8-20. What system works on the echo principle?
A. RADAR B. Sonobuoys C. TACAN D. WC
p. 550
8-21. A surfaced or snorkeling submarine is not likely to be detected by an aircraft's radar. The reason is the submarine's ECM detects the aircraft's radar at a greater distance than the aircraft can detect the submarine. What helps solve the submarine detection problem?
A. RADAR B. Sonobuoys C. TACAN D. WC
8-22. The highly directional characteristics of what system make it suited for directing fire control?
A. ECHO B. IFF C. RADAR D. TACAN
8-23. What method other than visual recognition must be used for early identification of the target?
A. ECHO B. IFF C. RADAR D. TACAN
8-24. What is an expendable electronic listening device dropped into water from carrier-based and land-based patrol aircraft?
A. Gyroscopes B. IFF C. MAD D. Sonobuoys
8-25. What equipment uses the principle that a metallic submarine disturbs the magnetic lines of force of the earth?
A. Gyroscopes B. IFF C. MAD D. Sonobuoys
p. 551
End of Book Questions Chapter 9 Aircraft Ordnance
9-1. What is military material (such as combat weapons of all kinds) and the ammunition and equipment required for its use called?
A. Ammunition B. Ordnance C. Propellant D. Pyrotechnics
9-2. What ammunition contains compositions that produce illumination?
A. Cartridge activated device (CAD) B. Propellant C. Pyrotechnics D. Warhead
9-3. What is the term for actual size ammunition items with working mechanisms used for training exercises but having no explosive materials?
A. CAD B. Chemical ammunition C. Guided missile D. Inert ordnance
9-4. What is the part of ammunition containing the materials intended to inflict damage?
A. Cartridge activated device (CAD) B. Propellant C. Pyrotechnics D. Warhead
9-5. Which of the following is an unmanned vehicle designed as a weapon that travels above the surface of the earth?
A. Airborne stores B. Guided missile C. Incendiary D. Warhead
9-6. What type of ammunition is intended for operational use?
A. Inert B. Practice C. Non-service D. Service
p. 552
9-7. What type of ammunition is specifically designed or modified for use in exercises?
A. Inert B. Practice C. Non-service D. Service
9-8. What type of ammunition and components contain no explosive material?
A. Inert B. Practice C. Non-service D. Service
9-9. What type of ammunition is used for training personnel in all aspects of a familiarization program?
A. Inert B. Practice C. Non-service D. Service
9-10. What type of ordnance is painted yellow?
A. Armor-defeating B. Marking C. High explosive D. Toxic
9-11. What type of ordnance is painted grey with a dark green band?
A. Armor-defeating B. Marking C. High explosive D. Toxic
9-12. What type of ordnance is painted light blue?
A. Illuminating B. Irritant C. Low explosive D. Practice
9-13. What is the average reaction time of a MK 82 unprotected?
A. 3 + 30 B. 10 + 00 C. 12 + 18 D. 14 + 15
p. 553
9-14. What type of bombs have two suspension lugs threaded into lug inserts on the bomb body, contain high-explosive filler, and is identified by yellow-stenciled nomenclature on the bomb?
A. MK 80/BLU 100 B. MK 100/BLU 80 C. MK 176/BLU 82 D. MK191/BLU 88
9-15. What is the shortest reaction time of a BLU-117 thermally protected?
A. 3 + 30 B. 8 + 45 C. 12 + 18 D. 14 + 15
9-16. Which of the following types of bomb is used in most bombing operations?
A. General-purpose (GP) bombs B. Special purpose bombs C. Cluster bombs (CBU) D. Low-collateral damage bomb (LOCO)
9-17. A bomb body is shipped with a plastic plug installed in the nose and tail fuze wells to prevent what occurrence?
A. The explosive filler from spilling out B. Static charge build-up C. Accidental arming D. Damage to the internal threads from moisture entering the fuze wells
9-18. When shipping bombs, what type of pallet is used?
A. Metal B. Nylon C. Plastic D. Wood
9-19. How do laser-guided bombs detect a target?
A. Laser beam illumination B. Remote guidance C. Laser-guided bombs do not detect targets D. Programmed target data
9-20. Long-range missiles are usually capable of traveling what minimum number of miles?
A. 100 miles B. 200 miles C. 300 miles D. 400 miles
p. 554
9-21. Speeds from Mach 0.8 to Mach 1.2 are referred to by what term?
A. Subsonic B. Transonic C. Supersonic D. Hypersonic
9-22. Speeds above Mach 5.0 are referred to by what term?
A. Subsonic B. Transonic C. Supersonic D. Hypersonic
9-23. A service missile is usually referred to as which of the following types of missile?
A. A practice missile B. A tactical missile C. A dummy missile D. A training missile
9-24. What is the communications link between the pilot and the weapon?
A. AAA-9 B. AN/AE-12 C. AN/AWW-13 D. AR/AWW-13
9-25. Which of the following guided missile launchers is a complete launching system used with AIM-9M (series) missiles?
A. LAU-7 B. LAU-115 C. LAU-116 D. LAU-118
9-26. What launchers are capable of launching the AIM-9X?
A. LAU-7 and LAU-118 B. LAU-7 and LAU-127 C. LAU-115 and LAU-117 D. LAU-117 and LAU-118
9-27. All versions of Hellfire missiles in the Navy and Marine Corps inventory are carried on what type of guided missile launcher?
A. LAU-117 and LAU-118 B. LAU-118 and LAU-127 C. M-272/M-299 D. All the answers are correct
p. 555
9-28. How is an M61A1/A2 automatic gun (1) driven and (2) controlled?
A. (1) Electrically (2) pneumatically B. (1) Hydraulically (2) electrically C. (1) Electrically (2) electrically D. (1) Hydraulically (2) pneumatically
9-29. At what prescribed rate can an M61A1/A2 gun fire M50 series ammunition?
A. 2,000 to 6,000 rpm B. 2,000 to 4,000 rpm C. 4,000 to 6,000 rpm D. 4,000 to 7,200 rpm
9-30. What components are the primary parts of an M61A1/A2 automatic gun?
A. Barrels, housing assembly, and muzzle clamp assembly B. Housing assembly, muzzle clamp assembly, and clearing sector assembly C. Barrels, rotor assembly, and housing assembly D. Muzzle clamp assembly, rotor assembly, and barrels
9-31. A hand-manipulated signaling device is used for all EXCEPT which of the following signaling purposes?
A. Identification B. Countermeasure C. Warning D. Distress
9-32. When fired, the star ejected from an Mk 80 Mod 0 signal burns for what minimum amount of time?
A. 4.5 seconds B. 10.5 seconds C. 4.5 minutes D. 10.5 minutes
9-33. Before loading a signal into an Mk 31 Mod 0 signal projector, you should first take what action?
A. Inspect the signal for damage B. Make sure the signal projector is cocked C. Clear all personnel from the immediate area D. Make sure the signal projector is not cocked
9-34. When a Mk 25 Mod 2 marker is in the water, what liquid serves as an electrolyte to produce a current in the battery?
A. Fresh water B. Oil C. Seawater D. Acid
p. 556
9-35. What type of CAD is used primarily for release and ejection of stores from an aircraft?
A. CCU-44/C B. CCU-45/B C. Mk 19 Mod 0 D. Mk 97 Mod 0
9-36. What type of CAD is used as a power source to actuate a helicopter cable cutter?
A. CCU-44/C B. CCU-45/B C. Mk 19 Mod 0 D. Mk 97 Mod 0
9-37. What type of bomb rack is installed on the wing stations of the P-3 aircraft and is used with the aircraft wing store launcher assembly, which is modified to launch a Harpoon missile?
A. BRU-14/A B. BRU-12/A C. BRU-15/A D. BRU-32/A
9-38. What type of bomb rack is designed for fixed mounting in a bomb bay of a P-3 aircraft and can be used to carry, arm, and release a weapon?
A. BRU-11 B. BRU-12 C. BRU-14 D. BRU-32
9-39. What type of bomb rack can carry weapons/stores of between 10 and 28 inches in diameter weighing up to 2,600 pounds?
A. BRU-11 B. BRU-12 C. BRU-24 D. BRU-32
9-40. What type of bomb rack allows carriage of two smart weapons (up to 1,000-pound class) on a single aircraft station?
A. BRU-12 B. BRU-14 C. BRU-55 D. BRU-65
p. 557
End of Book Questions Chapter 10 Support Equipment
10-1. What are the two types of SE?
A. Aircraft handling equipment and preoperational equipment B. Aircraft handling equipment and aircraft servicing equipment C. Aircraft servicing equipment and aircraft preoperational equipment D. Aircraft servicing equipment and aircraft stationing equipment
10-2. What SE is a highly maneuverable, low-profile, towbarless helicopter handling vehicle that replaces the current hangar bay spotting dolly and attaches to and lifts a helicopter's single-tail landing gear?
A. A/S32A-31A B. A/S32A-32 C. SHH D. HSS
10-3. What SE is a shipboard firefighting vehicle, 4-wheel (2-wheel drive), 6-cylinder, turbocharged, liquid-cooled, 24-volt, diesel-powered vehicle with a hydrostatic drive system that transmits power to the rear wheels?
A. A/S32A-31A B. A/S32A-32 C. A/S32P-25 D. A/S32P-48
10-4. What SE is an aircraft towing tractor, also called "The Spotting Dolly," and is designed to tow, turn, and position aircraft within the confines of an aircraft carrier hangar deck?
A. A/S32A-31A B. A/S32A-32 C. A/S32A-45 D. A/S32A-48
10-5. What SE is a mid-range tow tractor with a 4-cylinder, diesel-powered, 3-speed automatic transmission, liquid cooled, rear-wheel-drive tractor designed for towing aircraft weighing up to 80,000 pounds?
A. A/S32A-31A B. A/S32A-32 C. A/S32A-45 D. A/S32A-48
p. 558
10-6. What SE is an aircraft crash handling and salvage, self-propelled, 4-wheel drive, 6-cylinder, liquid-cooled, turbocharged, diesel electric-powered vehicle mounted on 6 pneumatic rubber tires?
A. A/S32A-35A B. A/S32A-32 C. A/S32A-45 D. A/S32A-48
10-7. What SE is used to replenish oxygen storage cylinders and emergency bailout oxygen systems, which are installed in aircraft?
A. A/M26U-4B B. A/M32C-23 C. A/U26U-1 D. TMU-70
10-8. What SE is a shipboard mobile electric power plant (MEPP) designed to provide 115-VAC, 3- phase, 400-Hz or 28-VDC electrical power for aircraft aboard ship?
A. A/S32A-35A B. A/S32A-32 C. A/S37A-3 D. A/S32A-48
10-9. All support equipment you operate will have what type of card specific to the SE?
A. Non-operational B. Operational C. Post-operational D. Pre-operational
10-10. What phase of the SE training program do you receive training from AS ratings at the support equipment school sponsored by FRC/AIMD?
A. 4 B. 3 C. 2 D. 1
10-11. What phase of the SE training program covers the operation or use of the support equipment on a specific type of aircraft?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
p. 559
10-12. Who can submit a misuse or abuse form regardless of the command to which the person is attached?
A. Anyone in the AS rating B. Anyone witnessing the misuse or abuse C. Only a supervisor D. Only the safety officer
10-13. Who has the responsibility to revoke your yellow license under the condition that you intentionally misuse or abuse support equipment?
A. AMO B. CO C. DO D. XO
10-14. How long is your "yellow license" good for from the date issued for each specific type of support equipment and aircraft?
A. 2 years B. 3 years C. 4 years D. 5 years
10-15. If you transfer to a new outfit with different types of aircraft, your license is not valid. You must requalify under what phase of training for the new types of aircraft and be issued a new license?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
10-16. Who performs preoperational maintenance?
A. Organizational and intermediate administrative personnel B. Organizational and intermediate maintenance personnel C. Intermediate and civilian administrative personnel D. Intermediate and civilian maintenance personnel
p. 560
End of Book Chapter 11 Line Operations and Safety
11-1. What is the speed limit on runways, taxiways, parking areas, ramps, and work areas?
A. 2 mph B. 5 mph C. 7 mph D. 10 mph
11-2. When aircraft are towed, the towing speed should never be faster than the slowest person can walk or exceed ……. mph.
A. 2 B. 5 C. 7 D. 10
11-3. What color are most support equipment painted?
A. Blue and/or white with reflective tape strips on the side. B. Yellow and/or red with reflective tape strips on the corners. C. Yellow and/or white with reflective tape strips on the corners. D. White and/or blue with reflective tape strips on the side.
11-4. What type of life preserver is worn on the flight deck?
A. MJ-1 B. MJ-2 C. MK-1 D. MK-2
11-5. What color are danger areas, including intakes/exhaust and front/rear pintels for attaching tow bars, painted?
A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. Yellow
11-6. What color flight deck jersey does the arresting gear crew wear?
A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. Yellow
p. 561
11-7. What color flight deck jersey does the aviation fuel crew wear?
A. Blue B. Purple C. Red D. White
11-8. What color flight deck jersey does the Liquid Oxygen (LOX) crew wear?
A. Blue B. Purple C. Red D. White
11-9. What color flight deck jersey does the aircraft handling crew and chock men wear?
A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. White
11-10. What color flight deck jersey do ordnance personnel wear?
A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. White
11-11. How many hours before the launch is flight quarters usually sounded?
A. 1 to 2 B. 2 to 3 C. 4 to 5 D. 5 to 6
11-12. How many minutes before launch time do flight crews perform their final checks to start the engines upon the signal from primary fly control (PRI-FLY)?
A. 15 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30
11-13. Who has control for all flight deck lighting, landing spot lighting, flight deck floodlights, the stabilized glide slope indicator (SGSI), and the flight deck rotary beacon/
A. Flight deck control B. Hangar deck control C. Maintenance control D. Primary fly control (PRI-FLY)
p. 562
11-14. Who is involved in FOD walkdown?
A. All air department personnel B. Flight deck personnel C. Maintenance personnel D. Support equipment personnel
11-15. Which of the following is part of the emergency recovery equipment used for the emergency arrestment (stopping) of an aircraft that cannot make a normal (pendant) arrested landing?
A. Arresting hook B. Barricade C. Catwalks D. Number 3 wire
11-16. What is the meaning of the following day time aircraft hand signal: arms above head in vertical position with palms facing inward?
A. Affirmative (all clear) B. Negative (not clear) C. Proceed to next marshaler D. This way
11-17. What is the meaning of the following day time aircraft hand signal: arms down, fists closed, thumbs extended inwards, swing arms from extended position inwards?
A. Affirmative (all clear) B. Insert chocks C. Install down locks D. Remove chocks
11-18. What director hand signal is mandatory when directing aircraft?
A. Cut engine B. Disconnect ground electric power C. Emergency stop D. Hot brakes
11-19. What is the meaning of the following day time aircraft hand signal: either arm and hand level with shoulder, hand moving across the throat, palm down; hand is moved sideways, arm remaining bent, other arm pointing to engine?
A. Cut engine B. Disconnect ground electric power C. Slow down engine D. Start ground electric power
p. 563
11-20. What is the meaning of the following day time aircraft hand signal: describe large figure eight with one hand and point to the area with the other hand?
A. Cut engine B. Disconnect ground electric power C. Fire D. Engage nosegear steering
11-21. The aft flight deck is checked by who before aircraft can land?
A. Aircraft handling officer B. Arresting gear officer C. Catapult officer D. Flight deck control officer
11-22. What color wand is used by an aviation fuels checker?
A. Amber B. Green C. Red D. White
11-23. What color wand is used by a hook runner?
A. Amber B. Green C. Red D. White
11-24. What color wand is used by a plane captain?
A. Blue B. Green C. Red D. White
11-25. What is the meaning of the following day time helicopter hand signal: arms extended horizontally sideways, palms downward?
A. Hover B. Move downward C. Move upward D. Move to left
11-26. What is the meaning of the following day time helicopter hand signal: waving of arms over the head?
A. Land B. Lower wheels C. Remove blade tiedowns D. Wave off
p. 564
11-27. During cold weather procedures jury struts and crew station covers are …….
A. Mandatory. B. Optional. C. Necessary. D. Recommended.
11-28. During cold weather procedures what type of support equipment may be fitted with snowplow blades?
A. Forklift B. NC-10 C. Spotting dolly D. Tow tractor
11-29. What is designed for towing aircraft that have nose or tailwheel axle holes?
A. ALBAR B. TD-1A C. TD-1B D. Wheel chock
11-30. What is used to tie down aircraft aboard ship?
A. ALBAR B. TD-1A/B C. TD-22C D. Wheel chock
p. 565
End of Book Questions Chapter 12 Aircrew Survival Equipment
12-1. What is the first priority of flight clothing?
A. Camouflage B. Comfort C. Evasion D. Protection
12-2. At what temperature, in degrees Fahrenheit, does the summer flyer’s coverall begin to char?
A. 300 to 600 B. 400 to 700 C. 700 to 800 D. 900 to 1,000
12-3. Flyer’s boots come in which of the following size ranges?
A. 4 narrow through 14½ extra wide B. 5½ wide through 13 regular C. 5½ narrow through 15½ narrow D. 6 regular through 16 wide
12-4. The CWU-62/P anti-exposure coverall is supplied in how many sizes?
A. 9 B. 10 C. 11 D. 12
12-5. At what water temperature is the anti-exposure suit required to be worn?
A. 32 °C or below B. 40 °C or below C. 50 °F or below D. 60 °F or below
12-6. The multi-climate protection system is made up of how many pieces?
A. 6 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12
p. 566
12-7. What is the limit of speed a human can endure in a straight and level flight in an aircraft?
A. No limit B. 5 g’s C. 7 g’s D. 12 g’s
12-8. What type of garment provides protection from the effects of high g-forces experienced by aircrew assigned to high-performance aircraft?
A. Anti-exposure B. Anti-g C. Survival vest D. Torso harness
12-9. Who was the first person credited for successfully jumping from an aircraft using a parachute?
A. Jodaki Kuparento B. Albert Berry C. Arnold Appleby D. Andre-Jacques Garnerin
12-10. When did it become mandatory for all Army and Navy aircrew to wear the standard back-type parachute while in flight?
A. 1919 B. 1924 C. 1922 D. 1918
12-11. What is the second step of the five-step ejection sequence of the MK GRU-7?
A. Controller drogue deploys. B. Drogue gun fires. C. Initial ejection. D. Stabilizer drogue deploys.
12-12. By how many methods can the reserve parachute assembly be actuated?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
12-13. How much does the LPU-34/P series life preserver weigh, in pounds?
A. 3 B. 3¼ C. 4 D. 4½
p. 567
12-14. The LPU-34/P series life preserver has how many inflatable bladders?
A. One B. Two C. Three D. Four
12-15. What is the buoyancy rating, in pounds, of a properly inflated LPU-32/P life preserver?
A. 32 B. 40 C. 50 D. 65
12-16. What is the maximum number of personnel the LRU-16/P life raft can hold?
A. One B. Two C. Four D. Six
12-17. After how long does a dye marker cease to be a good target?
A. 1 hour B. 10 to 15 minutes C. 20 to 30 minutes D. 30 to 50 minutes
12-18. How far, in miles, can the dye marker be seen from an altitude of 3,000 feet?
A. 3 B. 5 C. 8 D. 10
12-19. What amount of candlepower is equivalent to the light a signaling mirror can produce?
A. 6 million B. 8 million C. 10 million D. 11 million
12-20. How many Mk 80 cartridges are in an Mk 79, Mod 0 signal kit?
A. 7 B. 8 C. 10 D. 12
p. 568
12-21. How many feet can the Mk 80 signal flare travel when propelled upward?
A. 100 to 350 B. 150 to 400 C. 250 to 650 D. 350 to 750
12-22. What is the maximum number of personnel the LRU-12A life raft assembly can hold?
A. One B. Three C. Four D. Six
12-23. What type of casing is the rescue strop constructed of?
A. International orange nylon B. International red nylon C. International red canvas D. International orange canvas
12-24. What material is inserted in the base of rescue seat?
A. Aluminum B. Foam C. Lead D. Nitrogen
12-25. How many pounds does the rescue net weigh?
A. 10 B. 20 C. 25 D. 30
12-26. How many times per minute for each 2-minute duration is the SDU-39/N required to flash?
A. 20 ±5 B. 30 ±10 C. 40 ±5 D. 50 ±10
p. 569
End of Book Questions Chapter 13 Crash Rescue and Firefighting
13-1. The process of fire is regarded as what type of triangle?
A. Chemical B. Combustion C. Fuel D. Oxygen
13-2. What is considered the fourth element necessary to sustain a fire?
A. Chemical chain reaction B. Fuel C. Heat D. Oxygen
13-3. What word is defined as the lowest temperature at which its vapors can be ignited and will continue to burn?
A. Exhaust point B. Fire point C. Flash point D. Vapor point
13-4. What term is defined as the temperature at which the substance gives off enough vapors to form an ignitable mixture with the air near the substance's surface?
A. Exhaust point B. Fire point C. Flash point D. Vapor point
13-5. At what temperature will fuel spontaneously ignite?
A. 300 °F B. 500 °F C. 700 °F D. 900 °F
13-6. Removing the fuel or combustible matter is doing what to a fire?
A. Cooling B. Feeding C. Smothering D. Starving
p. 570
13-7. What class of fire occurs in combustible materials, such as bedding, mattresses, books, cloth, and any matter that produces an ash?
A. A B. B C. C D. D
13-8. What class of fire is an energized electrical fire?
A. A B. B C. C D. D
13-9. Water in what form is very effective for fire-fighting purposes?
A. Foam B. Fog C. Solid stream D. Straight stream
13-10. What fire-extinguishing agent is an inert gas and extinguishes fires by smothering them?
A. AFFF B. CO2 C. Halon 1211 D. PKP
13-11. What class of fire occurs with flammable liquid substances?
A. A B. B C. C D. D
13-12. What class of fire occurs with combustible metals?
A. A B. B C. C D. D
13-13. What fire-extinguishing agent is a dry chemical principally used as a firefighting agent for flammable liquid fires?
A. AFFF B. CO2 C. Halon 1211 D. PKP
p. 571
13-14. What fire-extinguishing agent is known chemically as bromochlorodifluoromethane, is colorless, and has a sweet smell?
A. AFFF B. CO2 C. Halon 1211 D. PKP
13-15. What size, in inches, are fireplug outlets?
A. 1¼ or 2¼ B. 1½ or 2½ C. 2¼ or 3¼ D. 2½ or 3½
13-16. How many gallons does a high-capacity AFFF system tank hold?
A. 200 B. 400 C. 600 D. 800
13-17. How many gallons per minute (gpm) flow from a 2 ½ inch vari-nozzle?
A. 150 B. 200 C. 250 D. 300
13-18. What firefighting vehicle is a diesel-powered, six-wheel-drive truck with an automatic transmission?
A. A/S32P-25 B. A/S33P-26 C. T-1000 D. T-3000
13-19. What firefighting vehicle is a 4-wheel (2-wheel drive), 6-cylinder, turbocharged, liquid-cooled, 24-volt, diesel-powered vehicle, with a hydrostatic drive system that transmits power to the rear wheels?
A. A/S32P-25 B. A/S33P-26 C. T-1000 D. T-3000
13-20. How many feet per minute (fpm) is the rate of flame spread of aviation gasoline (AVGAS)?
A. 700 to 800 B. 800 to 900 C. 900 to 1000 D. 1,000 to 1,100
p. 572
13-21. What is the flash point of JP-4?
A. − °F B. −5 °C C. −10 °F D. −10 °C
13-22. The time to fuel tank failure (release of fuel) is dependent on the percent of fuel in the tank and ranges from what amount of time?
A. 28 seconds for a 10-percent load to 3 1/2 minutes for a 100-percent load B. 38 seconds for a 10-percent load to 4 1/2 minutes for a 100-percent load C. 1 minute for a 10-percent load to 6 1/2 minutes for a 100-percent load D. 3 minutes for a 10-percent load to 8 minutes for a 100-percent load
13-23. At what temperature does liquid oxygen boil into gaseous oxygen?
A. −55 °F B. −155 °C C. −200 °F D. −147 °C
13-24. What are the primary agents used to extinguish internal engine fires?
A. AFFF or water B. Halon 1211 or CO2 C. Halon 1211 or PKP D. PKP or CO2
13-25. What are the primary agents used to extinguish electrical and electronic equipment fires?
A. PKP or water B. Halon 1211 or CO2 C. Halon 1211 or PKP D. PKP or CO2
13-26. What are the primary agents used to extinguish rubber tire fires?
A. PKP or water B. Halon 1211 or CO2 C. Halon 1211 or PKP D. Halon 1211 or water fog