appendix and index.pdf
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AI-1 APPENDIX I
REFERENCES USED TO DEVELOP THIS NONRESIDENT TRAINING COURSE NOTE: Although the following references were current when this NRTC was published, their continued currency cannot be assured. When consulting these references, keep in mind that they may have been revised to reflect new technology or revised methods, practices, or procedures; therefore, you need to ensure that you are studying the latest references.
Chapter 1
Department of the Navy Policy for Safety, Mishap Prevention and Occupational Health Programs, SECNAVINST 5100.10H, Secretary of the Navy, Washington, D.C., 1999.
Environmental and Natural Resources Program Manual, OPNAVINST 5090.1B, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1994.
Issuance of Navy Traffic Safety Program, OPNAVINST 5100.12G, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
Mishap Investigation and Reporting, OPNAVINST 5102.1D, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1989.
Naval Aviation Safety Program, OPNAVINST 3750.6R, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program Manual, OPNAVINST 5100.23G, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2002.
Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program Manual for Forces Afloat, OPNAVINST 5100.19E, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C. 2001.
Navy Recreation, Athletics, and Home Safety Program, OPNAVINST 5100.25A, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1990.
Navy Safety and Occupational Health Program, OPNAVINST 5100.8G, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1986.
Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy, OPNAVINST 3120.32C, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1994.
Chapter 2
Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program Manual, OPNAVINST 5100.23G, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D. C., 2002.
Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program Manual for Forces Afloat, OPNAVINST 5100.19E, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
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AI-2 Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy, OPNAVINST 3120.32C, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1994.
Chapter 3
Mishap Investigating and Reporting, OPNAVINST 5102.1D, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1989.
Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program, OPNAVINST 5100.23G, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2002.
Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program Manual for Forces Afloat, OPNAVINST 5100.19E, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
Chapter 4
Mishap Investigation and Reporting, OPNAVINST 5102.1D, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1989.
Naval Aviation Safety Program, OPNAVINST 3750.6R, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program Manual OPNAVINST 5100.23G, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2002.
Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program Manual for Forces Afloat, OPNAVINST 5100.19E, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
Chapter 5
Hazardous Material Control and Management (HMC&M), OPNAVINST 5100.23G, Chapter 7, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2002.
Manual of Naval Preventive Medicine, NAVMED P-5010-3, Chapter 3, "Ventilation and Thermal Stress Ashore and Afloat," Naval Medical Command, Washington, D.C., 1988.
Naval Ships' Technical Manual (NSTM),Chapter 635, "Thermal, Fire, and Acoustic Installation," S9086-VH-STM-010, Commander Naval Sea Systems Command, Washington, D.C., 1998.
Naval Ships' Technical Manual (NSTM),Chapter 670, "Stowage, Handling, and Disposal of Hazardous General Use Consumables," S9086-WK-STM-010, Commander, Naval Sea Systems Command, Washington, D.C., 1997.
Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program Manual, OPNAVINST 5100.23G, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2002. Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program Manual for Forces Afloat, OPNAVINST 5100.19E, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
Shipboard Heat Stress Control and Personnel Protection, OPNAVINST 5100.19E, Vol. 1, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
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AI-3 Chapter 6
Department of the Navy Policy for Safety, Mishap Prevention and Occupational Health Programs, SECNAVINST 5100.10H, Secretary of the Navy, Washington, D.C., 1999.
Mishap Investigation and Reporting, OPNAVINST 5102.1D, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1989.
Naval Aviation Safety Program, OPNAVINST 3750.6R, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program Manual, OPNAVINST 5100.23G, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2002.
Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program Manual for Forces Afloat, OPNAVINST 5100.19E, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
Navy Safety and Occupational Health Program, OPNAVINST 5100.8G, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1986.
Chapter 7
Joint Fleet Maintenance Manual, Vol. 5, CINCLANTFLTINST/ CINCPACFLTINST 4790.3, CHG. 5, Commander, Naval Surface Force, Norfolk, Va./San Diego, Ca., 2001.
Manual of the Judge Advocate General, JAG Instruction 5800.7C, Office of the Judge Advocate General, Alexandria, Va., 1990.
Mishap Investigation and Reporting, OPNAVINST 5102.1D, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1989.
Mishap Investigation, Reporting, and Recordkeeping, DOD Instruction 6055.7, Department of Defense, Washington, D.C., 2000.
Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program Manual for Forces Afloat, OPNAVINST 5100.19E, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy, OPNAVINST 3120.32C, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1994.
Chapter 8
Aviation Maintenance Ratings Fundamentals, NAVEDTRA 14022, Naval Education and Training program Management Support Activity, Pensacola, Fla., 1997.
NAVAIROSH Requirements for the Shore Establishment, NAVAIR A1-NAOSHSAF- 000/P-5100-1, Commander, Naval Air Systems Command, Washington, D.C., 1988.
Naval Aviation Safety Program, OPNAVINST 3750.6R, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
The Naval Aviation Maintenance Program (NAMP), Volume 1, OPNAVINST 4790.2H, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
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Chapter 9
Ammunition Afloat, NAVSEA OP 4 00000500, Commander, Naval Sea Systems Command, Washington, D.C., 1999.
Ammunition and Explosives Ashore, Safety Regulations for Handling, Storing, Production, Renovation, and Shipping, Volume 1, NAVSEA OP 5, Commander, Naval Sea Systems Command, Washington, D.C., 1995.
Mishap Investigation and Reporting, OPNAVINST 5102.1D, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1989.
Naval Airborne Weapons Maintenance Program (NAWMP), OPNAVINST 8600.2A, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1989.
United States Navy Ordnance Safety Precautions, NAVSEA OP 3347, Commander, Naval Sea Systems Command, Washington, D.C., 1972.
U.S. Navy Explosives Safety Policies, Requirements, and Procedures (Department of the Navy Explosives Safety Policy Manual), OPNAVINST 8020.14, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1999.
Chapter 10
Issuance of Navy Traffic Safety Program, OPNAVINST 5100.12G, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
Chapter 11
Operation of Morale, Welfare & Recreation Programs, BUPERSINST 1710.11C, Chief of Naval Personnel, Washington, D.C., 2001. Cote, Arthur E., Fire Protection Handbook, National Fire Protection Association, Quincy, Mass., 1986.
Craighead, Frank C., Jr., and John J. Craighead, How To Survive on Land and Sea, 4th ed., Naval Institute Press, Annapolis, Md., 1984.
Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program Manual for Forces Afloat, OPNAVINST 5100.19E, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 2001.
Navy Recreation, Athletics, and Home Safety Program, OPNAVINST 5100.25A, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, D.C., 1990.
AI-4
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INDEX
A Afloat mishaps, 7-11. See also Mishap Afloat Safety Program, 7-1 elements, 7-1 evaluation, 7-7 goals, 7-1 organization 7-2 training, 7-4 Aircraft mishaps, 8-4. See also Mishap Aircraft safety, shipboard, 8-13 foreign object damage, 8-13 line and flight deck safety precautions, 8-13 Asbestos Control Program, 5-15 Athletic activities, safety for, 11-9 baseball and softball, 11-9 basketball, 11-10 boxing, 11-10 football, 11-10 golf, 11-11 handball, 11-11 racquetball, 11-11 roller skating and in-line skating, 11-11 skateboarding, 11-11 soccer, 11-12 squash, 11-11 tennis, 11-12 track and field, 11-12 walking, 11-12 wrestling, 11-12 Aviation, naval, 8-1 aircraft mishap investigations, 8-7 hazard report and mishap investigation report endorsements, 8-8 hazard reports, 8-3 mishap and hazard recommendation tracking program (MISTRAC), 8-9 mishap investigation reports, 8-8 mishap reports, 8-6 mishaps, 8-4 pre-mishap plans, 8-6 safety, 8-1 safety program, 8-1 Aviation safety program, command, 8-10 elements of the, 8-12 functions of the, 8-11 responsibilities, 8-10 B Baseball and softball, 11-9 Basketball, 11-10 Bicycling, 11-8 Boating, 11-6 Boxing, 11-10 Burns and scalds, 11-14 C Conventional ordnance deficiency, 9-10 action required following a, 9-12 events reportable as a, 9-11 exceptions, 9-11 report format, 9-10
D Deficiencies abatement of, 3-15 conventional ordnance, 9-11 Deficiencies—Continued drills to identify, 8-6 electric shock resulting from, 6-9 Enlisted Aviation Safety Committee discussion of, 8-12 entered into the current ship’s maintenance project (CSMP), 3-16 hazard severity of, 3-13 identifying, 6-7 interim correction of, 3-16 list, 7-7 master-at-arms (MAA) force responsibility for correction of, 7-7 SOH notice of, 3-14 oxygen, 6-10, 7-12 recorded in installation hazard abatement plan, 3-15 reporting, 6-7, 7-7, risk associated with, 3-13 safety, 6-7 training, 3-4 ventilation system, 5-5 E Electrical Safety program, 5-22 Explosives handling, 9-1 certification procedure, 9-8 fire-watch responsibilities during, 9-7 improper, 9-3 personal protective equipment, 9-5 precautions, 9-4 prohibited articles in areas of, 9-6 qualification levels, 9-8 qualification procedures, 9-8 reportable as a conventional ordnance deficiency, 9-10 review boards, 9-1 supervision of, 9-3 training in, 9-2 training of subordinates in, 9-4 Explosives mishaps definitions and terms associated with, 9-10 investigation and reporting procedures for, 9-2, 9-10, 9-12 investigation and reporting responsibilities for, 9-12 post-mishap actions, 9-12 preventing, 9-3 report, 6-10 reportable, 6-9, 7-12, 9-10 Explosives safety, 9-1 F Football, 11-10 G Gas Free Engineering Program, 5-23 H Hazard abatement, 3-13 abatement plans, 3-15, 3-16 awareness development, 3-16 control, 3-6 identification, 3-7 interim correction of a, 3-16 mishap probability, 3-13 SOH deficiency notice of a, 3-14 Hazard—Continued prevention, 3-6 report, 3-8, 8-3 reporting, 3-7, 8-3 risk assessment code, 3-13 severity, 3-13 Hazardous Material/Hazardous Waste Program, 5-9 Hearing Conservation program, 5-7 Heat Stress Control and Prevention Program, 5-5 Home, safety in the, 11-12 children, 11-14 electricity, 11-13 fires, 11-13 hobby shop equipment, 11-13 ladders, 11-12 slips and falls, 11-12 I Ice and snow sports, 11-9 Industrial hygiene survey, 5-3, 6-6 terminology, 5-3 Injury classifications, 8-6 Investigative procedures, 4-7 L Lead Control Program, 5-16 M Material Safety Data Sheets (MSDS), 5-10 Medical Surveillance Program, 5-24 Mishap afloat, 7-10 aircraft, 8-4 analyzing a, 4-15 categories, 7-11, 8-4 causes, 3-1 definition of an afloat, 7-11 definition of an aircraft, 8-4 hazard report endorsements, 8-8 injury classifications, 8-6 investigation, 7-11, 8-7 investigation board, 4-2, 7-12, 8-7 investigation report, 7-11, 8-8 investigation report endorsements, 8-8 investigator training, 4-6 off-ship, 7-12 pre-mishap plans formulated for a, 4-4, 8-6 prevention, 3-5, 8-1, 9-3 prevention and hazard awareness training, 7-4 probability, 3-13 reportable, 7-11 reporting, 7-10, 8-6 reporting procedures, 7-11 reports, 7-11, 8-6 severity classes, 8-5 AI-5
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Mishap and Hazard Recommendation Tracking Program (MISTRAC), 8-9 Mishap causes, 3-1 administrative and supervisory factors, 3-5 alcohol, 3-2 behavioral factors, 3-3 drug abuse, 3-2 environmental conditions, 3-5 ergonomics, 3-2 Mishap causes—Continued extreme temperatures, 3-3 fatigue, 3-3 human error, 3-2 interpersonal relationships, 3-4 lack of training and experience, 3-4 maintenance and support factors, 3-4 material failures or malfunctions, 3-5 mental factors, 3-3 motion sickness, 3-3 noise, 3-3 physical impairments, 3-2 temporary physical illnesses, 3-2 vibration, 3-3 visual acuity, 3-3 Mishap investigation and reporting off duty, 11-14 board, 4-2, 7-12 fundamentals, 4-1 kits, 4-6 pre-mishap plans for conducting a, 4-4, privileged information, 4-2 procedures, 4-7, 7-11 report, 8-8 report endorsements, 8-8 responsibilities, 4-2 testimonial immunity, 4-4 words and definitions associated with a, 4-2 Motorcycles, 10-7 N Naval Aviation Safety Program, 8-1 Naval Explosives Safety Program, 9-1 elements, 9-2 organization and general responsibilities, 9-2 purpose, 9-1 Naval Safety Center other publications published by, 1-9 periodicals published by, 1-7 responsibilities, 1-6 safety surveys, 7-8 Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Inspection Program, 6-7 Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) program, 5.1 background of, 5-1 elements of, 5-1 fundamentals of, 5-1 scope of, 5-2 Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) programs that address specific hazards, 5-5 Asbestos Control Program, 5-15 Electrical Safety Program, 5-22 Gas Free Engineering Program, 5-23 Hazardous Material/Hazardous Waste Program, 5-9 Hearing Conservation Program, 5-7 Heat Stress Control and Prevention Program, 5-5 Lead Control Program, 5-16 Medical Surveillance Program, 5-24 Radiation Protection Program, 5-17 Respiratory Protection Program, 5-18 Sight Conservation Program, 5-14 Tag-Out/Lock-Out Program, 5-23 Navy Safety Program, 1-1 Navy Traffic Safety Program, 10-1 applicability, 10-1 applicability to pedestrians, 10-4 enforcement, 10-1 requirements for child safety seats, 10-3 requirements for driver education, 10-4 requirements for motorcycle operators, 10-7 requirements for safety belts, 10-2 restrictions on alcohol use, 10-4 restrictions on portable headphones use, 10-4 O Off-duty mishap investigation and reporting, 11-14 Ordnance, 9-1 deficiencies, 9-10 mishap prevention, 9-3 P Personal protective clothing and equipment, 5-20, 9-5, 11-2 Poisoning and choking, 11-14 Pre-mishap plan, 4-4, 8-6 Privileged information, 4-2,7-12 R Racquetball, 11-11 Radiation Protection Program, 5-17 Recreation, Athletics, and Home Safety Program, 11-1 facilities evaluation and inspections, 11-2 personal protective equipment requirements, 11-2 Recreation, Athletics, and Home Safety Program—Continued recreational activities safety, 11-3 recreational safety controls, 11-3 training, 11-2 Recreational activities, safety for, 11-3 bicycling, 11-8 boating, 11-6 hunting, 11-8 ice and snow sports, 11-9 scuba, skin, and cave diving, 11-5 swimming, 11-4 water skiing, 11-7 Respiratory Protection Program, 5-18 Risk assessment code, 3-13
S Safety and occupational health management principles, 2-7 chain of command, 1-9 explosives, 9-1 for athletic activities, 11-9 for recreational activities, 11-3 in the home, 11-12 in today’s modern Navy, 1-3 of shipboard aircraft, 8-13 periodicals, 1-7 philosophy, 2-1 policy, 1-3 precautions, 5-25 promotion methods, 2-5 shipboard organization, 7-4 shore, 6-1 standards for surface ships, 7-8 training, 1-15 traffic, 10-1 Safety Program history of, 1-1 Navy Recreation, Athletics, and Home, 11-1 promotion and attitudes, 2-1 responsibilities for the local, 1-10 Scuba, skin, and cave diving, 11-5 Sight conservation program, 5-14 Swimming, 11-4 T Tag-Out/Lock-Out Program, 5-23 Testimonial immunity, 4-4 Traffic safety, 10-1 W Water skiing, 11-7 Witness statement, 4-2 Witnesses, advice to, 4-5 Workplace monitoring plan, 6-6
AI-6
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14167F ASSIGNMENT 1 Textbook Assignment: “Development of the Navy Safety Program,” chapter 1, pages 1–1 through 1- 14, and “Safety Program Promotion and Attitudes.” chapter 2, pages 2–1 through 2–7.
1-1. The Navy is obligated to provide you with a safe and healthy work environment according to which of the following regulatory measures?
1. Occupational standards 2. Naval standards 3. Tradition 4. Law
1-2. The occupational health element of the Navy Safety Program is conducted by which of the following individuals or activities?
1. CNO 2. CNET 3. BUMED 4. COMNAVSAFECEN
1-3. Enlisted personnel on shore duty were included in safety programs beginning in what year?
1. 1929 2. 1939 3. 1949 4. 1959
1-4. The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) became law in what year?
1. 1940 2. 1950 3. 1960 4. 1970
1-5. The guidance needed to carry out the basic safety and health program elements specified in 29 CFR is provided in which of the following instructions?
1. DODINST 6055.1 2. OPNAVINST 5100.19E 3. OPNAVINST 5100.23G 4. SECNAVINST 5100.10H
1-6. What person is designated as the safety and occupational health official for the Department of the Navy?
1. Chief of Naval Education and Training 2. Chief of Naval Operations 3. Assistant Secretary of the Navy 4. Secretary of the Navy
1-7. SECNAVINST 5100.10H delegates the authority for the operational aspects of the SOH Program to which of the following individuals or activities?
1. CNO 2. CNET 3. BUMED 4. COMNAVSAFECEN
1-8. What document serves as the basis for the SOH Program?
1. OPNAVINST 3120.32C 2. OPNAVINST 5100.19E 3. OPNAVINST 5100.23G 4. SECNAVINST 5100.10H
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1-9. Which of the following OPNAV instruction is the Program Manual for Forces Afloat?
1. 3750.6R 2. 5100.19E 3. 5100.23G 4. 5102.1D
1-10. Freedom from danger, risk, or injury defines which of the following words?
1. Peril 2. Hazard 3. Safety 4. Severity
1-11. We measure a hazard according to which of the following elements involved in the occurrence of a mishap?
1. Risk 2. Peril 3. Lost days 4. Severity and probability
1-12. Most mishaps are preventable.
1. True 2. False
1-13. What is the most frequent cause of Navy mishaps?
1. Equipment malfunction 2. Human error 3. Weather 4. Fate
1-14. Where is the NAVSAFECEN located?
1. Pensacola, Florida 2. Pittsburgh, Pennsylvania 3. Columbus, Ohio 4. Norfolk, Virginia
1-15. The NAVSAFECEN conducts safety surveys of the naval operating forces and shore establishments upon the request of which of the following individuals?
1. Type commander 2. Unit safety officer 3. Unit medical officer 4. Chief of Naval Operations
1-16. The NAVSAFECEN performs which of the following functions?
1. Promotes interest in mishap prevention through hazard awareness 2. Conducts safety surveys 3. Provides safety recommendation and database reports 4. All of the above
1-17. Unless otherwise directed, NAVSAFECEN is NOT responsible for safety in which of the following areas?
1. Afloat operations 2. Ashore operations 3. Nuclear propulsion 4. Ordnance handling
1-18. The NAVSAFECEN receives and analyzes all mishap and injury reports submitted by which of the following commands?
1. Aviation and ship commands only 2. Submarine and shore commands only 3. Aviation and shore commands only 4. Aviation, ship, submarine, and shore commands
1-19. In addition to being entered into NAVSAFECEN’s data bank, the results of a NAVSAFECEN safety survey are given to what person?
1. Type commander of the unit involved 2. Chief of Naval Education and Training 3. Commanding officer of the unit involved 4. Chief of Naval Operations
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1-20. Approach, the Naval Aviation Safety Review, is published at least how often?
1. Daily 2. Weekly 3. Bi-Monthly 4. Quarterly
1-21. Articles, commentaries, and short features about mishap prevention, as well as articles about flight operations, are found in which of the following publications?
1. Flash 2. Sea/shore 3. Approach 4. Combat Systems and Weapons Department Management
1-22. What safety periodical contains articles on shipboard safety problems, trends, mishaps briefs, and statistics?
1. Ship Safety Bulletin 2. Sea/Shore 3. Approach 4. Safetyline
1-23. Safety line is published a maximum of how many times each year?
1. One 2. Two 3. Six 4. Eight
1-24. You can find a summary of research from selected reports of submarine hazards in which of the following publications?
1. Flash 2. Sea/shore 3. Approach 4. Safetyline
1-25. The proper chain of command and responsibilities for the SOH program are contained in which of the following instructions?
1. OPNAVINST 5354.1C 2. OPNAVINST 5100.8G 3. OPNAVINST 5100.23G 4. OPNAVINST 5430.1A
1-26. Safety matters within a unit are the ultimate responsibility of which of the following individuals?
1. Work center supervisor 2. Commanding officer 3. Executive officer 4. Safety officer
1-27. The commanding officer appoints which of the following individuals to help carry out day-to-day safety-related matters?
1. Safety officer 2. Medical officer 3. Engineer officer 4. Executive officer
1-28. Afloat, the safety organization extends from the commanding officer down to which of the following levels?
1. Top management only 2. The most junior sailor 3. Middle management only 4. First-line supervisors only
1-29. Safety petty officers assigned to assist the safety officer must be in which of the following paygrades?
1. E-5 and above 2. E-4 and below 3. E-3 only 4. E-7, E-8, and E-9 only
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1-30. Who normally serves as the recorder for the Safety Council?
1. Commanding officer 2. Executive officer 3. Engineer officer 4. Safety officer
1-31. The division safety petty officer is appointed by what person?
1. Commanding officer 2. Executive officer 3. Department head 4. Division officer
1-32. To develop recommendations for policy in safety matters and to analyze the progress of the overall safety program, the ship’s Safety Council convenes how often?
1. Quarterly 2. Monthly 3. Weekly 4. Daily
1-33. Ships with less than 300 crew members may incorporate the Enlisted Safety Committee into the Safety Council.
1. True 2. False
1-34. What is the primary goal of any safety program?
1. To place safety violators on report 2. To enhance operational readiness 3. To eliminate all accidents 4. To predict all accidents
1-35. Which of the following personnel would normally be assigned as the aeromedical safety officer?
1. Flight surgeon 2. Aviation officer 3. Air operations officer 4. Physical fitness coordinator 1-36. The Enlisted Aviation Safety Committee meets at least how often?
1. Once a month 2. Twice a month 3. Three times a year 4. Monthly
1-37. Safety training is accomplished by which of the following means?
1. On-the-job training and general military training 2. Indoctrination training and formal safety courses 3. Safety standdowns and safety surveys 4. All of the above
1-38. Indoctrination training on the command’s overall SOH Program is required by which of the following instructions?
1. OPNAVINST 5100.23G 2. OPNAVINST 5100.19E 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. OPNAVINST 1500.71
1-39. What is the best time of the day to conduct training?
1. Early in the day 2. After sundown 3. Just before liberty call 4. After lunch
1-40. A person who is cold, hot, hungry, or tired has what type of need?
1. Psychological 2. Physiological 3. Social 4. Ego
1-41. All people want to have a feeling of belonging. This is an example of what type of need?
1. Psychological 2. Physiological 3. Social 4. Ego
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1-42. Which of the following needs is associated with a person’s need to feel useful and respected?
1. Social 2. Ego 3. Physiological 4. Psychological
1-43. An effective instructor will observe which of the following guidelines?
1. Always accept a person’s answer 2. Talk to the entire group, not just to the front row 3. Watch your mannerisms 4. All of the above
1-44. A command uses which of the following approaches to “market” its safety program?
1. Safety legislation 2. Mandatory training 3. Promotional efforts 4. Behavior modification
1-45. We can always rely on common sense to prevent mishaps.
1. True 2. False
1-46. You can develop a safety attitude in your workers through which of the following practices?
1. Enforcing all safety regulations 2. Training your people in safe workmanship 3. Convincing them of the command’s sincere interest in safety 4. A1l of the above
1-47. Good risk taking can be considered a precaution against mishaps. A good risk taker exhibits the ability to make which of the following responses to a risk?
1. Overcome it 2. Totally avoid it 3. Explain it to a superior and help decide what action to take 4. Recognize the levels involved and decide whether taking it is worthwhile
1-48. To encourage workers to report hazards, you should take which of the following steps?
1. Make workers feel comfortable and assure them of their anonymity in reporting hazards 2. Discipline workers for failing to report hazards 3. Award workers for reporting hazards 4. Coerce or threaten workers
1-49. Some people have a desire for recognition and status. Which of the following incentives serve as an appropriate motivator for such people?
1. Material gain 2. Self-preservation 3. Personal comfort 4. Praise and acceptance
1-50. After a worker safely completes a job that is hazardous, which, if any, of the following awards would be appropriate?
1. A sincere “attaboy” 2. A letter of appreciation at the next award ceremony 3. A week’s leave 4. None of the above
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1-51. Job motivation is achieved by which of the following means?
1. Recognition 2. Increased responsibility 3. Opportunity for achievement 4. All of the above
1-52. Which of the following methods will reduce the need for disciplinary corrective actions?
1. Threats and reprimands 2. Close supervision 3. Meaningful mishap prevention orientation 4. Assignment of extra duty
1-53. To be a good salesman, you must have the ability to
1. sell 2. manage 3. advertise 4. identify with the customers
1-54. What are the three steps involved in selling your safety program?
1. Preparation, presentation, and commitment 2. Preparation, advertising, and selling 3. Preparation, presentation, and selling 4. Advertising, presentation, and commitment
A. Safety posters and stickers B. Promotional stunts C. Safety suggestions D. Safety contests
Figure 1–A.-Safety Promotion Methods.
COMMANDS DEVELOP ADVERTISING CAMPAIGNS TO PROMOTE SAFETY. SELECT THE PROMOTION METHOD IN FIGURE 1-A DESCRIBED BY THE STATEMENTS GIVEN FOR QUESTIONS 1-60 THROUGH 1-64. RESPONSES MAY BE USED ONCE, MORE THAN ONCE, OR NOT AT ALL.
1-55. A passive training method used to remind workers of hazards.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
1-56. Prizes awarded for the best command safety slogan, safety essay, or safety posters.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
1-57. Display of a wrecked vehicle near a naval base gate during the holiday season.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
1-58. A safety recommendation that could result in monetary rewards.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
1-59. Use of both pictures and words to convey a safety message.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
1-60. Who should take the lead in organizing SOH setting SOH policy, and assigning SOH accountability?
1. All hands 2. Top management 3. Middle management 4. First-line supervisors
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14167F ASSIGNMENT 2 Textbook Assignment: “Mishap Causes, Prevention, and Hazard Abatement, “chapter 3, pages 3-1 through 3-17, and “Mishap Investigation Fundamentals, “chapter 4, pages 4-1 through 4-10.
2-1. What is the primary purpose of a mishap investigation?
1. To determine culpability 2. To determine replacement cost 3. To determine the effects on operational readiness 4. To determine the causes and prevent recurrences
2-2. An unplanned event that interrupts work and causes damage or injury describes which of the following terms?
1. Mishap 2. Mistake 3. Misconduct 4. Mismanagement
2-3. As a supervisor, you need to understand why mishaps occur for which of the following reasons?
1. To conduct financial planning 2. To anticipate a mishap occurrence 3. To understand your job description 4. To better equip you to prevent mishap occurrence
2-4. Anything contributing to a mishap can be referred to as a/an
1. safety program deficiency 2. operating error 3. mishap cause 4. mishap
2-5. According to studies, what minimum percentage of mishaps are caused by the person involved in the mishap?
1. 80% 2. 20% 3. 50% 4. 40%
2-6. What technology deals with workplace designs that minimize body stress and maximize production?
1. Economics 2. Ergonomics 3. Aerodynamics 4. Biosystematics
2-7. If a mishap occurs because of a person’s faulty depth perception, you should report which of the following cause factors for the incident?
1. Alcohol 2. Environment 3. Physical impairment 4. Temporary physical illness
2-8. The most common form of polydrug abuse is a mixture of which of the following drugs?
1. Amphetamines and barbiturates 2. Amphetamines and aspirin 3. Cocaine and marijuana 4. Alcohol and any drug
2-9. Experience has shown that when people tackle new tasks, mishaps occur for which of the reasons?
1. Lack of patience 2. Lack of initiative 3. Lack of training 4. following Lack of self-confidence
p. 144
2-10. Supervisors sometimes contribute to mishaps because they have a lack in which of the following areas?
1. Knowledge of the capabilities of their personnel 2. Materials 3. Funds 4. Time
2-11. To counterbalance the lack of understanding on a new job, an inexperienced person should be provided with
1. training 2. close supervision 3. knowledge 4. basic skills
A. Administrative and supervisory factors B. Environmental factors C. Maintenance and support factors D. Material failure factors
Figure 2-A.-Mishap Cause Factors.
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-12 THROUGH 2-16, SELECT THE CAUSE FACTOR IN FIGURE 2–A RESPONSIBLE FOR THE MISHAP DESCRIBED AS THE QUESTION. RESPONSES MAY BE USED ONCE, MORE THAN ONCE, OR NOT AT ALL.
2-12. A mishap caused by premature equipment failure resulting from improper installation.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
2-13. A mishap resulting from failure to require personnel to meet personnel qualification standards.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 2-14. A mishap caused by metal fatigue failure.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
2-15. Mishap resulting from lack of quality assurance (QA).
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
2-16. A mishap resulting from the accidental use of incorrect procedures.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
2-17. The process used to eliminate mishap-producing causes before a mishap occurs is called mishap
1. determination 2. correction 3. prevention 4. detection
2-18. Which of the following methods is preferred for controlling the impact of hazards?
1. Identifying existing hazards 2. Eliminating existing hazards 3. Preventing the hazard at the design stage 4. Reducing the impact of hazards that cannot be eliminated
2–19. What program is used to maintain equipment and material and prevent them from becoming operational hazards?
1. QA 2. PMS 3. MDS 4. PARs
p. 145
A. Substitution B. Engineering controls C. Administrative controls D. Use of personal protective equipment
Figure 2-B.—Hazard Control Methods.
WHEN PREVENTING HAZARDS IS IMPOSSIBLE, HAZARD CONTROL METHODS ARE USED TO CONTROL HAZARD POSSIBILITIES. TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 2-20 TO 2-24, SELECT THE METHOD IN FIGURE 2-B THAT MATCHES THE DESCRIPTION USED AS THE QUESTION. RESPONSES MAY BE USED ONCE, MORE THAN ONCE, OR NOT AT ALL.
2-20. A barrier used to physically separate people from contact with hazards.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
2-21. Replacing an existing piece of equipment with a similar item having a lower hazard potential.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
2-22. Using special operating procedures to reduce exposure of personnel to hazards.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
2-23. Using chemical gloves, safety goggles, and so forth, when working with acids.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 2-24. Using local exhaust ventilation to prevent airborne contaminants from passing through the worker’s breathing zone.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
2-25. An alleged imminent danger situation hazard report is received. An investigation should be conducted within what minimum amount of time?
1. 24 hours 2. 36 hours 3. 48 hours 4. 72 hours
2-26. When not satisfied with the response to a hazard report, military personnel can appeal through the chain of command to which of the following persons?
1. Chief of Naval Operations 2. Secretary of Labor 3. Deputy Assistant Secretary of Defense 4. Secretary of Health
2-27. A safetygram is used to report a hazard within a particular ship.
1. True 2. False
2-28. What code expresses the risk that combines the elements of hazard severity and mishap probability?
1. Risk category code 2. Risk assessment code 3. Mishap category code 4. Mishap classification
p. 146
2–29. A hazard that could cause death is assigned what hazard severity category?
1. I 2. II 3. III 4. IV
2-30. What RAC is assigned to a hazard that is immediately likely to cause a mishap and could result in death?
1. 1 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4
2-31. Which of the following documents contains the Hazard Abatement Plan for forces afloat?
1. PMS 2. PQS 3. SORM 4. CSMP
2-32. Afloat, the interim control for a RAC 1 or 2 hazard must be approved by what person?
1. Commanding officer 2. Executive officer 3. Safety officer 4. Supply officer
2-33. Which of the following elements improve(s) hazard awareness in personnel?
1. Experience 2. Education 3. Training 4. All of the above
2-34. Which of the following persons is/are responsible for mishap investigation?
1. Commanding officer only 2. Division officer only 3. Leading petty officer only 4. All levels of supervision 2-35. A mishap occurred in your shop. As the supervisor, you should be the person who conducts the mishap investigation for which of the following reasons?
1. Seniority 2. Prior experience 3. Investigative technique 4. Knowledge of the experience and characteristics of your personnel
2-36. When conducting a mishap investigation, you should NOT ask the witnesses what type of questions?
1. Who 2. How 3. What 4. Where
2-37. Mishaps and injuries are two separate occurrences.
1. True 2. False
2-38. Privileged information is usually gathered by using which of the following methods?
1. Interrogation 2. Forced confession 3. Promise of confidentiality 4. Promise of reward
2-39 Witnesses will provide statements to mishap investigation boards under oath.
1. True 2. False
2-40. Which of the following items is considered privileged information?
1. Copies of instructions 2. Witness statements 3. Physical evidence 4. Logs and records
p. 147
2-41. Which of the following factors is the key to a good investigation?
1. Witnesses' attitude 2. Witnesses' enthusiasm 3. Investigator’s instinct 4. Investigator’s training
2-42. What is the first priority when mishaps occur?
1. Save lives 2. Control damage 3. Preserve the evidence 4. Protect the mishap site
2-43. A diagram of a mishap scene has what primary advantage over a photograph?
1. Shows less clutter 2. Shows no action 3. Shows no direction of movement 4. Shows less lighting information
2-44. A witness is defined as an insight provider to a mishap. Which of the following elements can be classified as a witness?
1. Parts 2. People 3. Position 4. Each of the above
2-45. When it comes to “how” the mishap occurred, which of the following witnesses or situations provide the most valuable information?
1. Parts 2. Paper 3. People 4. Position
2-46. During a safety investigation afloat, how can you minimize the withholding of information?
1. Witness should testify under oath 2. Witnesses should be rewarded 3. Promise of confidentiality 4. Promise of testimonial immunity 2-47. To assure witnesses that the information they provide will not be used against them, a formal mishap investigation board uses what form?
1. Advice to Witnesses form 2. Special Request form 3. DD–1149 form 4. DD–1348 form
2–48. When in the process of interviewing several witnesses, you should take which of the following steps to prevent them from forming a homogenized testimony?
1. Assign witnesses separate tasks at different locations 2. Meet witnesses individually 3. Meet with witnesses as a group 4. Have witnesses wait in the mess deck for the interview
2-49. To effectively interview witnesses, you should apply which of the following techniques?
1. Ask questions that can only be answered by a yes or no 2. Ask questions that will require explanations 3. Always start your interview with a different question 4. Use two or more investigators to interview a witness
2-50. You do NOT use Advice to Witness forms when performing which, if any. of the following types of investigations?
1. Local mishap investigations 2. Formal mishap investigations 3. Static mishap investigations 4. None of the above
2-51. What is considered the most difficult part of a mishap investigation?
1. Taking pictures 2. Interviewing witnesses 3. Determining the sequence of events 4. Determining who caused the mishap
p. 148
2-52. You may obtain information on previous mishaps that may provide clues to the mishap you are currently investigating from which of the following commands?
1. Naval Safety Center 2. Systems commands 3. Type commanders 4. All of the above
2-53. YOU found criminal evidence during an informal investigation. Which of the following actions should you take?
1. Call NIS 2. Consult with legal services 3. Stop your investigation and inform your chain of command 4. All of the above
A. Fault Tree Analysis B. Change Analysis C. Management Oversight and Risk Tree D. Technique of Operations Review
Figure 2-C.—Analytical Techniques.
SELECT THE ANALYTICAL TECHNIQUE IN FIGURE 2–C THAT MATCHES THE DESCRIPTION USED IN QUESTIONS 2–61 THROUGH 2-65. RESPONSES MAY BE USED ONCE, MORE THAN ONCE, OR NOT AT ALL.
2-54. A departure from the norm. which could become an element in the chain of events leading to a mishap.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
2-55. A method of determining if a particular system, component, or equipment requires planned maintenance.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 2-56. An analysis directed more at management than at hardware. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
2-57. An analysis that takes into account more supervisory and human factors.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
2–58. A method of working backward from the final failure to the original component to show the cause-and effect relationship of the system.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
p. 149
14167F ASSIGNMENT 3 Textbook Assignment: “Navy’s Safety and Occupational Health Program Fundamentals,” chapter 5, “pages 5-1 through 5-27, and “Shore Safety,” chapter 6, pages 6-1 through 6-11.
3-1. A separate SOH manual for forces afloat was issued for what reason?
1. Because of their high tempo of operations 2. Because of unique military equipment 3. To comply with OSHA standards 4. To comply with CNO’S directive
3-2. The Safety and Occupational Health (SOH) Program applies to which of the following groups of people?
1. Military personnel 2. Civilian personnel 3. Nonappropriated fund personnel 4. All of the above
3-3. Which of the following is a measure of a successful SOH Program?
1. All surveys being conducted 2. SOH training being conducted 3. All mishaps being reported 4. Work related injuries and illnesses being reduced
3-4. The SOH Program Manual does NOT address some of the safety and health standards for personnel assigned ashore. In those cases, what safety standards should shore personnel adhere to?
1. NAVELEX 2. NSTM 3. OSHA 4. CNO
3-5. Able B. Seaman is assigned to ground electronics at a naval air station. He will find the electrical safety standards that apply to his job in which of the following publications?
1. SOH Program Manual 2. General Industry Standards 3. SOH Program Manual for Forces Afloat 4. Standard Organization and Regulations of the U.S. Navy
3-6. Industrial hygiene deals with controlling the work environment to protect the workers’
1. wages 2. health 3. benefits 4. working hours
3-7. The legally established exposure level of a harmful physical agent is identified by which of the following terms?
1. Ceiling limit 2. Threshold limit value 3. Short-term exposure level 4. Permissible exposure limit
3-8. During an industrial hygiene survey, which of the following areas should be investigated?
1. Decks only 2. Galleys only 3. Engineering spaces only 4. Every workplace at the facility
p. 150
3-9. Heat stress becomes excessive when the body
1. is unable to adjust to changes in temperature 2. starts sweating 3. temperature reaches 99 degrees Fahrenheit 4. is exposed to rising temperature
3-10. Aboard ship, what was the leading cause of heat stress injuries reported in 1991?
1. Participating in physical fitness training 2. Working in engineering spaces 3. Wearing the fire-fighting ensemble 4. Working in food preparation areas
3-11. A victim having hot, flushed, dry skin and a fast, strong pulse is suffering from what type of heat stress?
1. Heat cramps 2. Heat stroke 3. Heat fatigue 4. Heat exhaustion
3-12. A victim who has pale and clammy skin; has a fast, weak pulse: and is experiencing profuse sweating is suffering from what type of heat stress?
1. Heat exhaustion 2. Heat fatigue 3. Heat stroke 4. Heat cramps
3-13. What type of heat stress is a life threatening medical emergency?
1. Heat exhaustion 2. Heat fatigue 3. Heat stroke 4. Heat cramps
3-14. When heat cannot be reduced in the work area, which of the following precautions could prevent a heat stress injury?
1. Control the conditions that cause heat stress 2. Detect the conditions that cause heat stress 3. Restrict personnel exposure to the heat 4. Use dry bulb thermometers
3-15. When the noise level cannot be maintained below 84 dB by using engineering controls, which of the following types of protection is necessary?
1. Isolate the noisiest equipment 2. Use earplugs or earmuffs 3. Reduce the number of operating personnel 4. Secure the area to personnel
3–16. What regulation ensures the safe and effective use of hazardous materials?
1. Material Safety Data Sheet instructions 2. Hazard Communication Standard 3. Hazardous Materials User’s Guide 4. DOD Hazardous Materials Information System
3–17. The Navy’s hazardous material control and management program is managed by which of the following commands?
1. Occupational Safety and Health Agency 2. Environmental Protection Agency 3. Naval Supply Systems Command 4. Naval Safety Center
3-18. Material can be designated as hazardous waste by which of the following commands?
1. EPA or State Agency 2. NSC 3. OSHA 4. NSSC
p. 151
3-19. The Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) provides which of the following hazardous material information?
1. Price 2. Manufacture date 3. Transportation date 4. Health Hazards
3-20. What data base provides useful information on more than 70,000 hazardous materials used by the defense department?
1. Material Safety Data Sheets 2. Hazardous Materials Information System 3. Ship Hazardous Materials List & Authorized Use List 4. Hazardous Material User's Guide
3-21. Which of the following information appears on hazardous material labels as mandated by OSHA?
1. Name and address of the manufacturer 2. Emergency and first–aid procedures 3. Transportation data 4. Disposal data
3–22. A hazardous material that you ordered arrived with only the minimum required OSHA label. What additional label, if any, should you attach to the material?
1. Hazardous chemical warning label 2. Visual hazard warning label 3. MSDS label 4. None
3–23. Who is responsible for determining an eye- hazard area?
1. Division officer 2. Industrial hygienist 3. Activity safety officer 4. Activity commanding officer
3–24. Aboard ship, who should have a complete list of all eye-hazard areas?
1. Safety officer 2. Medical officer 3. Safety petty officer 4. Chief master–at–arms
3-25. Which of the following processes is used to identify asbestos products?
1. An oil laboratory test 2. Microscopic analysis 3. An acidity test 4. Casual observance
3–26. If you ingest lead, what part of your body can be damaged?
1. Lungs 2. Kidneys 3. Stomach 4. Esophagus
3–27. Which of the following shipboard materials contain(s) lead?
1. Batteries 2. Pipe joints 3. Weights and cable sockets 4. All of the above
3–28. What type of radiation strips atoms of its electrons?
1. Laser radiation 2. Radar radiation 3. Ionizing radiation 4. Nonionizing radiation
p. 152
3-29. As outlined in OPNAVINST 5100.19E and 5100.23G, which of the following personnel are excluded from the Radiation Protection Program?
1. Nuclear weapons technicians 2. Medical x-ray technicians 3. Dental x-ray technicians 4. Radar technicians
3–30. Afloat, the commanding officer starts a respiratory protection program by appointing, in writing, which of the following personnel?
1. Certified respiratory protection program manager 2. Respiratory protection officer 3. Medical officer 4. Safety officer
3–31. When, if ever, would a surgical mask be considered as adequate respiratory protection?
1. During chipping 2. During painting 3. During grinding 4. Never
3-32. A respirator cartridge used while painting is identified by which of the following labels?
1. Dust 2. Mist 3. Fumes 4. Vapor
3–33. What type of respirator do you use in an environment that is deficient in oxygen and is laden with mercury?
1. Self-contained breathing apparatus 2. Emergency escape breathing device 3. Air–purifying respirator 4. Cartridge respirator A. Dust B. Fumes C. Gas D. Mist and fog
Figure 3-A.-Types of Air Contaminants.
IDENTIFYING THE TYPES OF AIR CONTAMINANTS IS CRITICAL IN SELECTING THE PROPER RESPIRATOR. TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 3–41 THROUGH 3–45, SELECT THE TYPE OF AIR CONTAMINANT IN FIGURE 3–A THAT MATCHES THE DESCRIPTION USED AS THE QUESTION. RESPONSES MAY BE USED ONCE. MORE THAN ONCE, OR NOT AT ALL.
3–34. Particles formed by the condensation of volatile solids that are produced by the welding, brazing, or cutting of metals.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
3–35. A material that under normal temperature and pressure tends to occupy an entire space.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
3–36. Particles created by breaking up larger particles during the crushing, grinding, sanding, or chipping of materials.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
3-37. Finely divided liquid droplets suspended in air that are produced during spray painting.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
p. 153
3–38. A material that is usually invisible and odorless.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
3–39. Personal protective clothing and equipment (PPE) can reduce or eliminate the hazard itself.
1. True 2. False
3–40. You are assigned to do hot work over the side. Which of the following PPE are you required to wear?
1. Safety shoes, heat–insulated gloves, safety harness, and approved hard hat 2. Safety shoes, leather gloves, and safety harness 3. Safety shoes, heat–insulated gloves, and a safety harness with wire rope 4. Safety shoes, heat-insulated gloves, and a safety harness with nylon lanyards
3-41. Afloat, in which of the following spaces can you obtain an extension cord?
1. Electronics Technician’s shop 2. Electrical tool issue room 3. Boatswain’s locker 4. Supply
3-42. The electrical tools custodian can only issue tools to which of the following personnel?
1. Members of electrical and electronics ratings 2. Engineering personnel 3. Personnel who have received electrical safety training within the year 4. All of the above
3–43. When, if ever, should personnel receive indoctrination and training on basic electrical safety?
1. Upon reporting aboard 2. Annually 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Never
3-44. During all corrective maintenance, you are required to abide by which of the following safety procedures?
1. Planned Maintenance System (PMS) procedures 2. Maintenance Data System (MDS) procedures 3. Standard operating procedures 4. Tag-out/Lock-out procedures
3-45. Which of the following precautions should you observe when working in a confined space?
1. Always report to the gas free engineer before working in a confined space 2. When aboard ship, use gas free certificates for only 8 hours 3. Wear a hard hat aboard ship during a confined space test 4. Test a confined space for the presence of toxic gases only
3-46. As a supervisor, you should ensure your workers follow which of the following safety precautions?
1. Comply with safety procedures 2. Wear appropriate PPE 3. Take no short cuts and safely perform all jobs 4. All of the above
3–47 . What instruction provides the administrative requirements for shore SOH programs?
1. OPNAVINST 5100.19E 2. OPNAVINST 5100.21B 3. OPNAVINST 5100.23G 4. OPNAVINST 5102.1D
p. 154
3-48. Both military and civilian personnel are subject to disciplinary action when they violate SOH regulations.
1. True 2. False
3–49. Ashore, who plans, directs, and administers the SOH programs?
1. Commanding officer 2. Safety officer 3. Naval safety center 4. SOH office
3-50. For an activity to have a full-time SOH manager, it should have at least a total of how many personnel?
1. 100 2. 200 3. 300 4. 400
3-51. Which of the following activities provides analytical services and occupational medicine examinations?
1. Industrial hygiene laboratories 2. Medical training centers 3. Naval hospitals 4. SOH offices
3-52. Which of the following approaches is likely to change behavior and lead to mishap prevention?
1. Legislated safety 2. Safety endorsement 3. SOH training 4. Peer pressure
3-53. How much total HAZCOM training is required by collateral duty SOH personnel?
1. 30-minute initial training only 2. 3-hour initial training and OJT 3. Initial training and refresher training as required 4. 24–hour initial training and 3–hour annual training
3-54. At which of the following naval air stations can you obtain quotas for shore-oriented safety courses?
1. Norfolk, Va. 2. Meridian. Miss. 3. Pensacola. Fla. 4. North Island, Calif.
3-55. Which of the following statements describes the objective of the SOH program?
1. To establish mishap prevention standards 2. To provide a safe and healthy work environment 3. To evaluate the effectiveness of the safety program 4. To provide supervision in matters pertaining to safety
3-56. What type of survey is required if hazards are found in a work place?
1. Base–line 2. Walk–through 3. Periodic 4. Initial
3-57. When the industrial hygiene survey shows potential exposure of personnel to toxic chemicals, what plan is prepared?
1. Workplace monitoring plan 2. Industrial hygiene plan 3. Exposure sampling plan 4. Pre-mishap plan
p. 155
3-58. Data pertinent to personnel exposures (except asbestos) are retained for a minimum of how many years?
1. 10 years 2. 20 years 3. 30 years 4. 40 years
3–59. Navy workplaces with recognized potential health hazards should be evaluated at what minimum frequency?
1. Weekly 2. Annually 3. Bimonthly 4. Semiannually
3-60. Ashore, SOH oversight inspections are conducted by which of the following commands?
1. OSHA 2. NAVINSGEN 3. PREINSURV 4. NAVSAFECEN
3-61. You have civilian employees working in your facility. Which of the following personnel may conduct SOH inspections of your work site?
1. Federal OSHA officials only 2. State OSHA officials only 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Safety Center officials only
3–62. OSHA officials can conduct worksite inspections on work centers staffed with military personnel only,
1. True 2. False
3–63. To report property damage, the SOH office uses which of the following logs/reports?
1. Annual Summary of Navy Civilian Occupational Injuries 2. Log of Navy Injuries and Occupational Illnesses 3. Explosive Mishap Report 4. OPNAV Safety Report
3-64. Before a mishap is reported to the Naval Safety Center, any injury involved must result in how many lost workdays?
1. 5 2. 2 3. 3 4. 4
3-65. Which of the following mishaps is reportable?
1. A mishap resulting in $5000 property damage 2. Electric shock because of a personnel error 3. Traffic mishap not involving a government vehicle, but resulting in $1000 DOD property damage 4. Damage to small craft assigned
3-66. An investigation of a shore mishap that resulted in a fatality is initiated by which of the following persons?
1. Local SOH officer 2. Echelon 2 commander 3. Echelon 3 commander 4. Naval Inspector General
p. 156
14167F ASSIGNMENT 4 Textbook Assignment: “Afloat Safety,” chapter 7, pages 7–1 through 7-10; “Naval Aviation Safety,” chapter 8, pages 8-1 through 8–11; and “Explosives Safety,” chapter 9, pages 9-1 through 9–5.
4-1. The primary goal of the afloat safety program is to
1. instruct personnel in hazard prevention 2. evaluate effectiveness of the safety program 3. maintain safety records and mishaps statistics 4. attain the highest degree of operational readiness
4-2. What is the first critical step in achieving the goals of the afloat safety program?
1. Hazard identification 2. Hazard elimination 3. Hazard prevention 4. Hazard correction
4-3. Shipboard safety standards can be found in what volume of the SOH Program Manual for Forces Afloat?
1. I 2. II 3. III 4. IV
4-4. Directing the afloat safety program is the 4-7. Responsible for ensuring that subordinate responsibility of which of the following personnel?
1. Executive officer 2. Safety officer 3. Commanding officer 4. Members of the chain of command
4-5. Who executes and manages the afloat safety programs?
1. Chief of Naval Operations 2. Commanding officer 3. Executive officer 4. Safety officer
A. Chief of Naval Education and Training B. Commander, Naval Safety Center C. Systems commanders D. Type commanders
Figure 4–A.-Afloat safety program personnel.
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 4-6 THROUGH 4–10, SELECT FROM FIGURE 4-A THE PERSON WHO PERFORMS THE FUNCTION LISTED AS THE QUESTION. RESPONSES MAY BE USED ONCE, MORE THAN ONCE, OR NOT AT ALL.
4-6. Conducts the final review and analysis of safety investigation reports (SIRs).
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
commands provide effective safety training.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
p. 157
4-8. Provides technical focus for comprehensive development and administration of the afloat safety program.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
4-9. Sanitizes SIREPs and endorsements for use in safety training.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
4-10. The safety officer directly reports hazardous conditions or operations to which of the following personnel?
1. Commanding officer 2. Executive officer 3. Engineer officer 4. Division officer
4–11. All hands have which of the following safety responsibilities?
1. Know and obey all safety precautions 2. Report unsafe procedures 3. Provide mishap information to safety investigators 4. Each of the above
4-12. What is the key to a successful safety program?
1. An experienced safety officer 2. Hazard identification 3. Quality training 4. Mishap reporting
4-13. Safety courses are offered to shipboard personnel by which of the following activities?
1. Mobile training units 2. Fleet training centers 3. Naval training centers 4. Recruit training centers
4–14. What is the principal way commands discover hazards?
1. By chance 2. By the occurrence of mishaps 3. Through workplace inspections 4. Through individual personnel reports
4-15. At least how often should shipboard work spaces be inspected for safety hazards?
1. Weekly 2. Monthly 3. Annually 4. Semiannually
4-16. Results of surveys conducted by the Safety Center are sent to which of the following personnel?
1. Unit commanding officer 2. Chief of Naval Operations 3. Type commander 4. Unit safety officer
4–17. In 1989, the CNO called for a Navywide safety standdown for which of the following reasons?
1. Aviation mishaps 2. Off-duty mishaps 3. An annual requirement 4. A rash of shipboard mishaps
p. 158
4–18. Detailed procedures and report formats for afloat mishap investigation and reporting is contained in what instruction?
1. OPNAVINST 5100.19E 2. OPNAVINST 5100.10H 3. OPNAVINST 5102.1D 4. OPNAVINST 5100.23G
4–19. A mishap that results in property damage of $500,000 is assigned what mishap classification?
1. Class A 2. Class B 3. Class C 4. Special case
.
4–20. Shipboard mishaps involving civilians or foreigners are reportable under OPNAVINST 5102.1D.
1. True 2. False
4–21. What term is used to identify the potential cause of damage and injury?
1. Lack of training 2. Human error 3. Hazard 4. Stress
4-22. Who directs and supervises the Naval Aviation Safety Program?
1. Commander, Naval Safety Center 2. Commander, Naval Air 3. Aviation safety officer 4. Director, Air Warfare
4-23. Who advises and aids the CNO in the administration and monitoring of the Naval Aviation Safety Program?
1. Commander, Naval Safety Center 2. Commander, Naval Air 3. Aviation safety officer 4. Director, Air Warfare
4-24. Which of the following officers can be assigned as the aviation safety officer (ASO)?
1. A designated naval flight officer 2. A flight surgeon 3. An air department officer 4. An AIMD officer
4-25. The ASO billet is only a collateral duty.
1. True 2. False
4-26. When do you submit a Hazard Report (HR)?
1. When directed by higher authority 2. When directed by the ASO 3. Whenever a hazard is detected 4. Whenever a mishap has occurred
4-27. A special HR format is required to report which of the following hazards?
1. Bird strike 2. Mid-air collision 3. Aircraft fire 4. Aircraft mishap resulting in fatal injury
4-28. In the interest of safety, all HRs with a severe risk assessment code should be submitted within how many hours after the hazard is detected?
1. 60 2. 24 3. 36 4. 48
p. 159
4-29. The only restriction on the use of HRs is that they are used For Official Use Only (FOUO).
1. True 2. False
A. Fatal injury B. Permanent total disability C Permanent partial disability D. Lost workday
Figure 4-B.-Injury classifications.
IN ANSWERING QUESTIONS 4-39 THROUGH 4-43, SELECT THE INJURY CLASSIFICATION IN FIGURE 4-B THAT MATCHES THE DESCRIPTION USED. THE QUESTION. RESPONSES MAY BE USED ONCE, MORE THAN ONCE, OR NOT AT ALL.
4-30. An injury that results in the loss of both arms.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
4-31. An injury that results in death due to a complication arising from the mishap.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
4-32. An injury that results in second degree burns over 5 percent of the body.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
4-33. An injury that results in an unrepairable inguinal hernia.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
4-34. An injury that results in the loss of the great toe.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D
4–35. Mishap reports provide which of the following information concerning aircraft mishaps?
1. Hazard elimination information 2. Mishap prevention information 3. Information about the person causing the mishap 4. Information about the progress of investigation
4–36. NAVSAFECEN requires that a Class A aviation mishap be reported initially by which of the following means?
1. Message 2. Telephone or Message 3. Mail 4. Courier
4–37. Aircraft mishap investigations are conducted for which of the following reasons?
1. To determine culpability 2. To determine total damage 3. For safety purposes only 4. For accounting purposes only
p. 160
4–38. On what form do you report the hazards responsible for a mishap?
1. Special HR 2. SIREP 3. MR 4. HR
4–39. What is the purpose of the Mishap and Hazard Recommendation Tracking (MISTRAC) Program?
1. To monitor corrective actions 2. To ensure all hazards are reported 3. To eliminate hazards 4. To identify corrective actions
4-40. Under the MISTRAC program, who monitors corrective action recommendations?
1. ASO 2. CNO 3. COMNAVAIR 4. COMNAVSAFECEN
4-41. Who is responsible for providing safety education in a command?
1. CO 2. XO 3. EMO 4. ASO
4-42. What are the three functions of a command aviation safety program?
1. Hazard reporting, hazard detection, and hazard elimination 2. Hazard detection, hazard elimination, and safety training 3. Hazard reporting, hazard elimination, and safety training 4. Hazard monitoring, hazard reporting, and hazard detection
4-43. What publication identifies the requirements and conditions in reporting aviation mishaps?
1. OPNAVINST 3750.6R 2. OPNAVINST 5100.19E 3. OPNAVINST 5100.23G 4. NAVAIR A1-NAVOSH-SAF-000/P5100-1
4–44. Which of the following elements of an aviation safety program is/are vital to a successful safety effort?
1. Command climate 2. Command safety goals 3. Command safety organization 4. All of the above
4–45. Flight deck operations are more dangerous than ground aircraft operations for which of the following reasons?
1. Hazards posed by propellers and rotors 2. Exhaust area hazards 3. Limited space 4. Engine noises
4-46. What are the two most serious hazards of jet engine exhaust?
1. High temperature and noise 2. High temperature and high velocity 3. Noise and high velocity 4. Noise and exhaust gasses
4-47. Preventing the premature, unintentional, or unauthorized discharge of explosives is the main reason for having an explosives safety program.
1. True 2. False
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4-48. Who reviews the explosive safety of weapons or explosives systems?
1. DDESB 2. WSESRB 3. DCNO 4. COMNAVSAFECEN
4-49. DOD explosives safety standards are established by which of the following organizations?
1. DDESB 2. WSESRB 3. NAVSAFECEN 4. NAVSEASYSCOM
4-50. The explosives safety standards provide which of the following types of guidance to DOD components?
1. Disposal of explosives 2. Storage of explosives 3. Transportation of explosives 4. Avoidance of hazardous conditions connected with explosives
4-51. A waiver for an explosive safety requirement can be obtained from which of the following personnel?
1. Commanding officer 2. Secretary of Defense 3. Deputy Chief of Naval Operations 4. Commander, Naval Supply Systems Command
4-52. What is the most common cause of mishaps involving explosive devices?
1. Weather conditions 2. Manufacturing defects 3. Faulty design 4. Personnel error
.
4–53. Any requests, suggestions, or comments about explosives safety standards should be forwarded in writing to which of the following personnel?
1. Commander, Naval Supply Systems Command 2. Deputy Chief of Naval Operations 3. Secretary of Defense 4. Commanding officer
4-54. What flag is hoisted during ordnance handling operations?
1. ALPHA 2. BRAVO 3. KILO 4. PAPA
4-55. Who is authorized to safely remove and dispose of defective or suspected ammunitions from a work area?
1. CO 2. DCA 3. EOD 4. DCNO
4–56. As an explosive safety supervisor, you are authorized to alter some safety regulations to complete tasking on time.
1. True 2. False
4–57. What is the major safety factor in preventing an ordnance catastrophe?
1. Explosive safety instructions 2. An experienced fire–fighting team 3. A well-experienced and knowledgeable person in charge 4. The availability of more personnel than what is required for any ordnance operation
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4–58. At a minimum. when should you inspect ordnance elevators and hoists?
1. Monthly and after use 2. Meekly and before use 3. Weekly and after use 4. Semiannually
4–59. What publication should you use as a reference when performing maintenance and testing of elevators?
1. OPNAVINST 5100.21B 2. OPNAVINST 8600.2A 3. NSTM, chapter 400 4. NSTM, chapter 700
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14167F ASSIGNMENT 5 Textbook Assignment: “Explosives Safety,” chapter 9, pages 9–6 through 9-12; “Traffic Safety,” chapter 10, pages 10–1 through 10-7; and “Recreation, Athletics, and Home safety,” chapter 11, pages 11-1 through 11–15.
5-1. The wearing of certain articles of adornment are prohibited during ordnance operations. Exemptions to that regulation may be made by which of the following offices or centers?
1. Local safety office 2. Naval Safety Center 3. Naval supply center 4. Chaplain’s office
5–2. Who can give written authorization allowing spark-producing devices in explosives areas?
1. Supply officer 2. Safety officer 3. Commanding officer 4. Aviation ordnance officer
5-3. When a fire threatens a warehouse full of explosives, which of the following precautions should you take?
1. Evacuate personnel in the area 2. Call for additional fire fighters 3. Remove the explosives from the warehouse 4. Call an explosive ordnance disposal team
5–4. Which of the following ordnance evolutions requires a fire watch?
1. Inspection 2. Disposal 3. Transfer 4. Load up
5-5. Which of the following precautions is essential to any fire prevention effort?
1. Good housekeeping 2. A no smoking ordinance 3. A properly posted fire bill 4. Well–trained fire-fighting team
A. Team member (TM) B. Individual/Team leader (I/TL) C. Quality assurance (QA) D Instructor (IN) E. Safety observer
Figure 5–A.-Qualification Levels.
TO ANSWER QUESTIONS 5-6 THROUGH 5-9, SELECT THE QUALIFICATION LEVEL IN FIGURE 5-A THAT MATCHES THE DESCRIPTION USED AS THE QUESTION. RESPONSES MAY BE USED ONCE, MORE THAN ONCE, OR NOT AT ALL.
5–6. Requires sufficient knowledge to direct the performance of others in safe and reliable operations.
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. E
5–7. Requires a detailed knowledge of applicable inspection criteria for the explosive/device system.
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. E
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5–8. This level of qualification does not build on any other level of qualification.
1. B 2. C 3. D 4. E
5-9. Possesses the required skills to instruct others and provide formal training using an approved course.
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. E
5–10. Certification, unless revoked, is valid for a maximum of how many months?
1. 6 months 2. 12 months 3. 24 months 4. 36 months
5-11. The revocation of individual or team certification is mandatory when which of the following actions results in a mishap?
1. Flagrant disregard of safety precautions 2. Shows incompetence and/or unreliability 3. Operating explosive handling equipment recklessly 4. Each of the above
5-12. The procedures required for reporting explosives mishaps are more extensive than those required for other types of mishaps because of
1. the existence of a significant potential for damage or injury 2. the complications caused by an explosives mishap 3. the submission requirements of various agencies 4. the great difficulty in investigating an explosives mishap 5–13. Which of the following incidents is a reportable explosives mishap?
1. Misuse of equipment resulting in damaged ordnance 2. A chemical release of an agent into the atmosphere that creates a serious potential for exposure 3. A failure to launch weapons 4. The unintentional arming of an explosive component
5-14. Which of the following incidents is a reportable conventional ordnance deficiency?
1. Accidental discharge of small arms 2. The unintentional launching of a weapon 3. The unintentional arming of a weapon 4. Leaking or spilled propellant fuels and oxidizers
5-15. A common carrier transporting explosive materials has a mishap outside the naval base. Your report of this mishap should be based on which of the following instructions?
1. OPNAVINST 5100.12G 2. OPNAVINST 5100.19E 3. OPNAVINST 5102.1D 4. NAVSEA OP 2165
5-16. What type of mishap accounts for the majority of accidental deaths of Navy personnel?
1. Divinq 2. Afloat 3. Aviation 4. Motor vehicle
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5–17. The highway safety program standards are contained in what instruction?
1. OPNAVINST 5100.12H 2. OPNAVINST 5100.19E 3. OPNAVINST 5100.21B 4. OPNAVINST 5100.23G
5–18. The Navy Traffic Safety Program is not applicable to a person who drives an off-road motorcycle while off–duty.
1. True 2. False
5-19. Non-compliance with the Navy Traffic Safety Program can result in which of the following immediate actions by the Navy?
1. Revocation of driving license 2. Discharge from military service 3. Reduced wages and compensation 4. Nonpayment of medical bills for sustained injuries
5–20. You should wear a safety belt when riding in a motor vehicle in which of the following locations?
1. Off military bases only 2. On military bases only 3. Off military bases within the United States only 4. Off base, whether in the United States or overseas, and on all military bases
5-21. To qualify to drive Navy police vehicles, ambulances, and crash and rescue vehicles, you must take what safety course?
1. ATV Safety Institute Rider Course 2. AAA Driver Improvement Course 3. National Highway Traffic Safety 4. Administration’s EVOC Motor Vehicle Emergency Safety Course
5-22. What is the leading cause of motor vehicle–related deaths and injuries?
1. Fatigue 2. Alcohol 3. Inexperience 4. Faulty equipment
5-23. Which of the following precautions should you take when jogging on roads and streets?
1. Jog facing traffic 2. Jog with the traffic 3. Wear dark–colored clothing 4. Always use portable headphones
5-24. All naval personnel operating mopeds, on or off base, are required to complete which of the following safety programs?
1. A motor vehicle safety course 2. AAA driver improvement course 3. National highway traffic safety course 4. A motorcycle safety program course
5-25. What instruction deals with recreation, athletics, and home safety?
1. OPNAVINST 5100.19E 2. OPNAVINST 5100.23G 3. OPNAVINST 5100.25A 4. NAVSAFECEN 5102/30
5-26. The Navy Recreation, Athletics, and Home Safety Program applies to which of the following groups of people?
1. Military dependents on base only 2. Military personnel off duty only 3. Military personnel on duty only 4. All of the above
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5-27. At least how often should military personnel receive training on recreation, athletics, and home safety?
1. Annually 2. Semiannually 3. Daily 4. Quarterly
5-28. Whether a customer is qualified to operate hobby shop tools and equipment is determined by which of the following persons?
1. The public relations officer 2. The MWR staff member 3. The medical officer 4. The safety officer
5–29. You want to paint your truck in the auto hobby shop. The MWR employee should provide you with a written advisory about which of the following information?
1. The hazards associated with spray painting 2. The chemical composition of the paint 3. Medical emergency procedures 4. The area clean-up procedure
5–30. Which of the following documents proves you are qualified to operate a watercraft?
1. A basic boat operation card 2. U.S. Coast Guard small boat safety course completion certificate 3. A boat license 4. A valid driver’s license
5-31. Command training records should be maintained for a minimum of how many years?
1. Five 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four
5–32. What instruction governs the inspection of base swimming pools?
1. NMPCINST 1710.6A 2. OPNAVINST 5100.19E 3. OPNAVINST 5100.23G 4. SECNAVINST 5100.10H
5-33. Who is responsible for educating personnel on off-duty hazards and the importance of PPE in sports?
1. Division officer 2. Safety officer 3. RAHS Program manager 4. MWR officer
5-34. Many athletic injuries can be prevented by which of the following protective measures?
1. Conditioning and training 2. Choosing the best athletes only 3. Controlling the amount of alcohol use 4. Limiting the number of participants
5-35. In competitive team play. Who should be aware of the physical differences of the players?
1. The medical representative 2. The coach 3. The players 4. The recreation officer
5-36. Which of the following responsibilities do you have as a participant in an athletic event?
1. To win at all costs 2. To exceed your capabilities 3. To protect yourself from injury 4. To push yourself to the limit
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5–37. Which of the following recreational activities is considered the most deadly?
1. Racquet sports 2. Ice sports 3. Water sports 4. Football
5–38. Which of the following recreational mishaps is the leading killer of Navy people?
1. Drowning 2. Accidental discharge of a firearm during hunting 3. Head injuries from boxing 4. Head injuries from bicycling
5-39. What is your best defense against drowning?
1. Learn how to swim 2. Beware of cold water 3. Use the buddy system 4. Avoid swimming in lakes or rivers
5-40. YOU develop a cramp in your leg while swimming. Which of the following actions should you take?
1. Tread water and yell for help 2. Take a deep breath and float face up 3. Keep affected leg straight and swim to safety 4. Draw your knees toward your chest and massage your cramped leg while moving it
5-41. Unlike drinking and driving, drinking and swimming is safe.
1. True 2. False
5-42. What percentage of all boating mishaps with serious injury involves alcohol?
1. 10 percent 2. 20 percent 3. 50 percent 4. 75 percent
5-43. You rented a boat from MWR. Who, if anyone, on board the boat should wear a U.S. Coast Guard approved PFD?
1. The operator 2. All passengers 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. No one
5–44. Improper loading makes a boat unstable. The best place to distribute the load is in which of the following sections of the boat?
1. Aft 2. Middle 3. Forward 4. Half way between middle and aft.
5-45. Should your boat capsize, what would be the safest action for you to take?
1. Cling to the boat until help arrives 2. Swim to shore 3. Swim away from the boat and float until help arrives 4. Find the anchor and hold on to it
5-46. If someone falls overboard and drifts some distance from the boat, which of the following safety steps should you take?
1. Go into the water after the person 2. Throw a life preserver or rope toward the person 3. Call for help while circling the boat around the person 4. Maneuver the boat toward the person and let him or her hang onto the boat
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5–47. Safe water skiing requires a minimum of how many people?
1. Five 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four
5-48. When water skiing, you should know what number of audible signals?
1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four
5-49. Hand signals are used in water skiing as a means of communication between the skier and driver. What is the meaning of a “hand raised with fingers spread”?
1. “Stop” 2. “I am OK” 3. “Cut the motor” 4. “Slow the boat”
5-50. You are skiing at more than 25 mph when you realize that you are going to fall. What should you do after releasing the towline?
1. Stiffen your body before impact 2. Extend your legs and arms forward and fall backward 3. Grab your skis and hold until impact 4. Tuck your head beneath your arms and roll into a ball
5–51. Which of the following places is a safe location for firearms shooting practice?
1. In your back yard 2. In your basement 3. Over water 4. At the target range
5–52. To protect yourself from severe head injuries while bicycling, you should wear which of the following accessories?
1. A heavy head sweatband 2. An ANSI approved helmet 3. A plastic hard hat 4. A metal hard hat
5-53. Navy personnel experience the most mishaps from which of the following winter sports?
1. Snow skiing 2. Sledding 3. Snowmobiling 4. Ice skating
5–54. What factor is repeatedly cited as a major contributor to mishaps involving physical fitness?
1. Age 2. Sex 3. Overexertion 4. Physical conditioning
5-55. During softball or baseball games, which, if any, of the following precautions will keep team members from colliding with each other?
1. Use of approved PPE 2. Use of breakaway bases 3. Use of designated players to call off teammates for fly balls 4. None of the above
5-56. All participants of a boxing competition must attend a pre-competition meeting or clinic for which of the following purposes?
1. To size up the competition 2. To weigh all participants 3. To obtain a physical examination 4. To review concepts presented in the Safety Awareness Manual
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5-57. While playing golf, you are caught in a thunderstorm. Which of the following precautions should you take?
1. Go to the top of a hill 2. Keep close to wire fences 3. Try to reach thick timber 4. Seek shelter under an isolated tree
5-58. The requirement to wear proper eye protection during a racquetball game applies only to military personnel.
1. True 2. False
5-59. Home fatalities and serious injuries were lower in 1992 than 1991. To which of the following factors can you attribute this significant reduction?
1. Training 2. Greater safety awareness 3. Command emphasis on preventing off-duty mishaps 4. All of the above
5-60. What type of mishap causes most injuries in the home?
1. Falls 2. Burns 3. Shock 4. Poisoning
5-61. In the average home, most falling mishaps occur in what area?
1. Garage 2. Bedroom 3. Kitchen 4. Bathroom
5-62. The majority of ladders for household use have which of the following ratings?
1. Type I, heavy duty 2. Type II, light duty 3. Type III, light duty 4. Type IV, medium duty
5-63. What measurement of voltage kills more people annually than any other voltage?
1. 6 2. 110 3. 220 4. 440
5-64. Which of the following factors cause most home fires?
1. Defective house wiring 2. Defective electrical equipment 3. Home cooking 4. Children playing with matches
5-65. Your most reliable source of fire detection is your senses.
1. True 2. False
5-66. National Fire-Prevention Association Standard 74 recommends the installation of one smoke detector in which of the following areas of a home?
1. Above the door of each room 2. Outside each sleeping area 3. Above the entry to the basement 4. Outside the kitchen area
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5-67. When a smoke detector is installed near windows and doors, its sensitivity could be affected by which of the following elements of the environment?
1. Draft 2. Light 3. Moisture 4. Humidity
5-68. To prevent hot tap water from scalding children, you should set the hot water heater at what maximum temperature setting?
1. 120 degrees 2. 130 degrees 3. 140 degrees 4. 150 degrees
5-69. What is the most common cause of accidental poisoning of children in the home?
1. Paint 2. Alcohol 3. Medicines 4. Kitchen Cleaner
5-70. In general, an injury is reportable if the injured person loses a maximum of how many working days?
1. One 2. Five 3. Three 4. Four