FIRE CONTROLMAN SUPERVISOR

ship’s personnel proficiency in detecting, tracking, and successfully engaging hostile threats. The instructions that set forth specific training re- quirements include training and evaluation proce- dures for conducting (1) readiness and operational evaluations, (2) composite training unit exercises, (3) fleet exercises, and (4) battle readiness exercises. Readiness and Operational Evaluations Readiness and operational evaluations are a ma- jor part of fleet exercises to provide advanced train- ing and to examine fleet capabilities and limitations in warfare aspects. Normally, the duration of the exercise is 8 to 10 days, with the first 3 or 4 days de- voted to warm-up operations. The exercise scenario and the emphasis on particular warfare areas are ad- justed to the number, type, and training state of the participants. Specific accomplishment objectives in a given readiness and operational evaluation are pub- lished in the instruction letter for that exercise. All readiness and operational evaluation exer- cises have the following broad objectives: To train the fleet in various aspects of naval warfare and confrontation at sea, with emphasis on improving command and control. To provide specialized predeployment train- ing for anticipated fleet operations. To identify, measure, and analyze the practi- cable extent of fleet performance, capabilities, and limitations, and to develop appropriate recommended corrective action. To develop and test new tactics and doctrine. Composite Training Unit Exercises The composite training unit exercise has the fol- lowing overall goals: To enhance the readiness of participating units. To provide predeployment training. To test and evaluate new doctrine and proce- dures. To stimulate development of new concepts in naval warfare. Ships participating in composite training unit exercises should make maximum use of underway time to the operating area for training and drilling. This en route period is an excellent opportunity for the combat systems/weapons team and participating units to perfect their skills in the tactics and pro- cedures of the upcoming exercise. In addition to intraship training, the units can also train in multiship operations and evolutions in prep- aration to accomplish the stated exercise objectives. A composite training unit exercise has the fol- lowing specific objectives: To permit participants to conduct exercises in a multithreat environment to enhance readiness. To complete the maximum feasible type com- mander exercises required to achieve unit training readiness levels and special predeployment require- ments; To achieve unit familiarity and expertise in fleet report requirements and procedures required by higher authority. To train in operations under the minimum radiation concept, radiating electronic and communi- cations equipment necessary to accomplish a specific mission or task, while, at the same time, ensuring safety. To identify all levels of performance degrada- tion due to ship and system incompatibilities. To train and increase pects of operational security. proficiency in all as- 5-2

Fleet Exercises Battle Readiness Exercises Fleet exercises are held in accordance with fleet exercise publications (FXPs), which combine the training prescribed for crews of all ship types. There are three FXPs. FXP 1, Antisubmarine Warfare (ASW) Exer- cises, contains submarine and antisubmarine exer- cises. It also contains exercises to familiarize ASW personnel with basic doctrine, tactics, and weapons; exercises to train air and surface units in coordinated operation against submarines; and exercises to train air, surface, and submarine forces to operate under the direction of shore-based headquarters. FXP 2, Antiair Warfare (AAW) Exercises, contains air and antiair warfare exercises. It also con- tains exercises to train and evaluate gunnery person- nel in detecting, tracking, and destroying air targets; exercises to train and evaluate missile weapon sub- systems personnel in detecting, tracking, and de- stroying air targets and antiship missiles; and exercises to evaluate CIC personnel in intercept con- trol and AAW operations. FXP 3, Strike Warfare (STW), AntiSurface Ship Warfare (ASQ), Intelligence (INT), Electronic Warfare (ELW), and Command, Control, and Com- munications (CCC) Exercises, contains ship exer- cises. It also contains exercises for training gunnery personnel in naval gunfire support, surface firing, and spotting; exercises for antimine defense and sur- face-to-surface missile training; exercises for CIC and EW personnel training; and exercises to detect and combat antiship missile threats. In addition, each publication contains safety pre- cautions and exercise evaluation procedures. The force commander, the unit commanders, and the commanding officers are encouraged to use these publications to develop training programs to main- tain maximum proficiency in the applicable mission of each ship. Battle Efficiency Competition, CINCLANTFLT- INST 3590.11, outlines the requirements for training exercises and inspections that units must establish and maintain to ensure high battle readiness. This directive also contains the prerequisites and require- ments that individual ships must satisfy to earn battle efficiency awards within the force. The evaluation of battle readiness is administered to accomplish the readiness objective in as flexible a manner as pos- sible. This evaluation is based on the following actions: Minimizing formal reporting on the conduct of exercises. Providing for self-observing exercises at the discretion of the unit commander. Providing for operational equivalents in lieu of conduct of required exercises. Providing for maximum application of unit commander judgment in supervising the program to achieve the readiness objective. The exercise and inspection requirements pre- scribed are drawn from appropriate volumes of the FXP series and fleet instructions and are modified or extended with the appropriate performance standards and instructions for data collecting, evaluation, and reporting. The exercises specified are minimum re- quirements. TRAINING PROGRAMS AND SIMULATORS/STIMULATORS The proficiency exhibited by combat systems/ weapons personnel during high-level operational training exercises is often a reflection of the degree of competent training obtained at the subsystem 5-3

level and the ability of the personnel to work together as a team. Various systems and subsystems can em- ploy computer training programs and simulators/ stimulators to provide equipment and systems oper- ators with simulated operational environments for training purposes. As a supervisor, you should be familiar with the training programs and simulators/stimulators appli- cable to your ship’s equipment or systems configura- tion. And you should make maximum use of the capabilities to fine-tune your operators and combat systems team. This training can be very effective when a ship is not actively operating. Combat Direction Systems Operator Training A variety of training is available for combat di- rection systems operators who perform duties in the combat information center (CIC). Team training is available at land-based facilities, as well as aboard ship, Land-based facilities combine classroom in- struction and hands-on team training by using system mock-ups. Fleet technical support centers (FTSCs) may provide onboard team training by using the ship’s actual equipment. Ship personnel may run in- dividualized and team training by using training programs and simulators/stimulators aboard ship. Ships that are equipped with naval tactical data systems (NTDSs) may conduct individualized train- ing on the basic operation of CIC consoles with hands-on instruction combined with the lesson trans- lator (L-TRAN) program. Further training is best ac- complished with a combination of individualized and team training. Combat systems team training is accomplished by using a variety of simulation/stimulation systems. These systems simulate data, commands, and re- sponses required for real-time testing, training, and evaluation. They are (1) land-based, (2) part of the ship’s equipment, or (3) a combination of both. Additional team training may be conducted in pierside vans, such as the 20B5 or other pierside trainers, to provide coordinated stimulation of the ship’s sensors with a variety of scenarios. The advan- tage of onboard training is that the operators can use the equipment in its own configuration, which is not always possible at land-based facilities. Combat Systems/Weapons Operator Training Combat systems/weapons operator training is essential to an effective combat climate. In gun and missile fire-control systems, a test mode usually pro- vides simulated targets and jamming. The targets can be tracked, and simulated engagements can be con- ducted. The combat systems/weapons equipment, includ- ing gun mounts and missile launchers, can be exer- cised by using simulated targets. Guided-missile training rounds that incorporate a guided-missile simulator are used with the missile launchers to sim- ulate tactical missiles. Many of the tests designed to verify operational capabilities of the combat systems and individual subsystems provide operational training of equip- ment operators by using procedural instructions identical or similar to the actual tactical operating procedures. The degree of training provided for each subsystem varies with the function of the equipment used and the testing philosophy of each subsystem. NAVAL GUNFIRE SUPPORT QUALIFICATION All ships assigned shore bombardment or naval gunfire support (NGFS) have a required operational capability to maintain an NGFS qualification. Gene- rally, this requirement includes ships with 5-inch- caliber and larger guns. Unless revoked, qualification normally lasts for 15 months. For example, if a ship were to complete the first of several required exercises in January 1995 and the last required exercise in February 1995, it would be qualified until 30 April 1996. All exercises do not need to be completed at the same time, al- though that is encouraged for the maximum use of 5-4

the qualification period. Once qualified, the ship is expected to maintain its proficiency level throughout the qualification period. Frequent firing exercises are encouraged to maintain proficiency. Type commanders (TYCOMs) require that the basic NGFS team training course be completed when (1) 30 percent of the NGFS team (less gun-mount personnel) have been reassigned to other duties or permanently transferred, or (2) more than 90 days have passed since the last NGFS exercise was fired. NGFS qualification maybe terminated for any of the following reasons: When a ship is graded “unsatisfactory” for any NGFS exercise conducted for score. (This does not include exercises conducted as rehearsals or for proficiency training.) When a ship fires unsatisfactorily during a major exercise. When a ship commits a serious safety viola- tion at any time. QUALIFICATION PREREQUISITES Ships are required to routinely maintain a high state of material and gunnery readiness. As a result, the ships must comply with following prerequisites before conducting live firing exercises for NGFS qualification: All required gunnery and gunfire control planned maintenance system (PMS) must be current. All records of alignment checks must be pro- perly recorded in the smooth fire-control log. Formal team training, either at an NGFS trainer site or on board by an FTSC, must be com- pleted within 90 days before firing qualification exer- cises. All ships with the design capability of acqui- ring the radar beacon must successfully complete the radar beacon acquisition (RBA) exercise within 30 days of firing qualification exercises. In addition, other prerequisites may be required by the TYCOM. If so, refer to the appropriate TY- COM instructions. QUALIFICATION RULES NGFS qualification is based on the satisfactory completion of various elements and/or exercises. Both a numerical score and a grade of satisfactory or unsatisfactory are awarded. A score of 62.0 (60.0 SURFPAC) or higher is required for a satisfactory grade for each exercise or event. The final qualification score is the average of the last score attained in each of the required exercises or events. The final score must be at least 62.0. SURF- PAC allows a score of less than 60,0 on no more than one event, excluding the counter battery event, to qualify. Only one exercise may be fired by unqualified ships during each range visit. This ensures efficient range use and maintains high qualification standards. All subsequent exercises are fired for score. Exercises in progress maybe aborted because of foul range, ammunition malfunction, or equipment failure. Exercises may also be aborted to save time when, because of penalties or other point loss, the score will be unsatisfactory. During a range visit, a ship achieving a satisfac- tory grade on an exercise fired for score may not refire that exercise to improve its score until all other required exercises have been satisfactorily com- pleted. EXERCISE DOCUMENTATION TYCOMs and fleet commanders have specific data recording and reporting requirements for their exercises. Appropriate exercise manuals and appli- cable instructions identify the reporting requirements 5-5

and formats. In addition to the exercise reporting requirements, the Naval Sea Systems Command (NAVSEASYSCOM) requires additional data collec- tion and firing reports for surface missile systems. DATA COLLECTION Before firings, during firings, and immediately after intercepts, data should be collected from var- ious sources on the firing ship. In addition, telemetric (TIM) data should also be recorded; however, TLM is normally collected by other sources. Data are collected from the fire-control systems by a combination of chart recorders, teletype print- outs, and digital data extractions recorded on mag- netic tapes. Additional data may be collected in video recordings of radar displays and charts plotting engagement data. The specific forms of data collec- tion required vary with the fire-control systems and the TYCOMs. Data extraction should start when a director is designated to a target. It should continue until the missile destructs (intercept plus approximately 10 seconds). Teletype printouts should cover the same time interval. Complete instructions for data collec- tion by missile systems are available from range per- sonnel. STANDARD MISSILE SYSTEM FIRING REPORTS Standard missile system (SMS) firing reports are required for each missile firing (with the firing key closed with the intent to fire). In addition to the firing report data, an SMS firing report message is required to be submitted within 48 hours for each firing test. Performance analysis of Navy missile weapons systems is a complex task that requires specific data that are furnished on SMS firing reports. These data can be obtained from missile firing ranges and mis- sile firing ships. The STANDARD MWTARTAR missile firing report for DDG-, FFG-, CGN-, and CG-ship classes is a five-page form that is required to be submitted within 4 days of each exercise. Other missile systems have similar requirements. ABORTED EXERCISE MESSAGES An aborted exercise message must be submitted after a commitment of range or target services to a firing unit, and before firing the key closure. This message contains the following information: 1. The applicable data elements of the firing report. 2. The number of valid target presentations. 3. The reason for failure to fire. 4. The identification of the equipment, the nature of the casualty, and the date-time-group (DTG) of the casualty report (CASREP), if applicable, if the rea- son for no-fire is a ship equipment casualty. 5. A brief narrative of the exercise. All pertinent firing report information should also be entered into the fire-control smooth log and into the applicable equipment logs. 5-6

RECOMMENDED READING LIST NOTE: Although the following references were current when this TRAMAN was pub- lished, their continued currency cannot be assured. Therefore, you need to ensure that you are studying the latest revision. Antiair Warfare (AAW) Exercises, FXP 2, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, DC, 1987. Antisubmarine Warfare (ASW) Exercises, FXP 1, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, DC, 1992. Strike Warfare (SW), Intelligence (INT), Electronic Warfare (ELW), and Command, Control, and Communi- cations (CCC) Exercises, FXP 3, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, DC, 1987. 5-7

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REFERENCES USED TO DEVELOP THIS TRAMAN Antiair Warfare (AAW) Exercises, FXP 2, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, DC, 1987. Antisubmarine Warfare (ASW) Exercises, FXP 1, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, DC, 1992. COMNAVSURFLANT Combat Systems Officers Manual, NAVSURFLANTINST 9093.3, Naval Surface Force, U.S. Atlantic Fleet, Norfolk, VA, 1986. Department of the Navy Directives Issuance System Consolidated Subject Index, DPSINST 5215.1, Washington, DC, 1994. Format and Procedures for Validation of Enlisted Distribution and Verification Report (EDVR), NAVMILPERSCOMINST 1080.1, Naval Military Personnel Command, Washington, DC, 1989. Guide for User Maintenance of NAVSEA Technical Manuals, NAVSEA S005-AA-GYD-030/ TMMP, Naval Sea Systems Command, Washington, DC, 1988. Navy Stock List of Publications and Forms, NAVSUP 2002, Navy Publications and Forms Center, Philadelphia, PA, 1994. PQS Management Guide, NAVEDTRA 43100-1D, Naval Education and Training Support Center, Pacific, San Diego, CA, 1991. Requirements for Petty Officer First Class, NAVEDTRA 12046, Naval Education and Training Program Management Support Activity, Pensacola, FL, 1991. Requirements for Senior and Master Chief Petty Officer, NAVEDTRA 12048, Naval Education and Training Program Management Support Activity, Pensacola, FL, 1991. Standard Organization and Regulations of the US. Navy, OPNAVINST 3120.32, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, DC, 1994. Strike Warfare (STW), Intelligence (INT), Electronic Warfare (ELW), and Command, Control, and Communications (CCC) Exercises, FXP 3, Chief of Naval Operations, Washington, DC, 1987. AI-1 APPENDIX I

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INDEX A ACM group, 4-4 Acoustical countermeasures group, 4-4 Administration, 2-2 to 2-11 electrical safety/shock, 2-9 to 2-10 enlisted distribution & verification, 2-6 to 2-7 general quarters, 2-2 information security, 2-10 reports, 2-7 to 2-8 safety, 2-8 ship manning, 2-3 to 2-5 space upkeep/cleanliness, 2-11 Advancement handbooks, 1-6 to 1-7 Advisories, improvement program, 4-9 Alignment logs, SERT, 4-17 Alterations, 2-15 Assets, 3-15 to 3-16 Assistance team, ordnance, 4-8 to 4-9 Availabilities, 2-13 B Battle readiness exercises, 5-3 Bibliography, advancement, 1-6 to 1-7 C Casualty reports, 2-8 CDS, 4-4, 5-5 Close-in weapons subsystem, 4-5 Collection, data, 5-6 Combat systems, 4-1 to 4-24 components, 4-3 direction subsystem, 4-4, 5-4 operator training, 5-4 program advisories, 4-9 publications, 4-2 subsystems, 4-4 to 4-6 technical operations manual, 4-2 Test & Evaluation Program, 4-6 to 4-17 test coordinator, 4-9 training requirements manual, 4-2 Communications, 1-3, 3-14 to 3-15 Components, combat system, 4-3 Composite training unit exercises, 5-2 Coordinator, test, 4-9 Coordination support team, 4-8 Countermeasures subsystem, 4-4 CSCST, 4-8 CSIP, 4-9 CSITP, 4-9 CSORE, 4-9 CSPOE, 4-9 CSRR, 4-8 CSSQT, 4-9 CSSR, 4-8 CSTEP, 4-6 to 4-17 CSTOM, 4-2 CSTRM. 4-2 D Data collection, 5-6 Department responsibilities, 1-2 Discipline, 3-12 Documentation, exercise, 5-5 to 5-6 Duties, supervisory, 3-3 to 3-4 E EA group, 4-4 Eight o’clock reports, 2-7 to 2-8 Electrical safety/shock, 2-9 to 2-10 Electronic attack group, 4-4 warfare support group, 4-4 Enlisted distribution & verification, 2-6 to 2-7 Equipment standards, 1-5 status reports, 2-8 testing, 4-22 ES group, 4-4 Evaluations, readiness & operational, 5-2 Examination, post-overhaul, 4-9 Exercises battle readiness, 5-3 composite training unit, 5-2 documentation, 5-5 to 5-6 fleet, 5-3 messages, 5-6 operational, 5-1 to 5-3 weapons, 5-1 to 5-7 External communications, 3-15 F Fault isolation, 4-14 to 4-15, 4-22 to 4-23 Field changes, 2-15 to 2-16 Fleet exercises, 5-3 Forecasts, training, 3-22 G General quarters, 2-2 Group commander’s support team, 4-8 H Handbooks, advancement, 1-6 to 1-7 Harpoon missile weapons subsystem, 4-5 INDEX-1

R Information security, 2-10 Inspections, 2-11 to 2-12 maintenance administration, 2-12 material readiness, 2-11 to 2-12 performance, 2-11 to 2-12 physical, 2-12 post-overhaul, 2-12 pre-overhaul, 2-12 survey, 2-11 type commander, 2-11 Integrated maintenance, 4-19 test plan, 4-9 Intermediate availability, 2-13 Internal communications, 3-14 to 3-15 Isolation, fault, 4-14 to 4-15, 4-22 to 4-23 L LAMPS, 4-5 Lesson plan, 3-19 Light airborne multipurpose subsystem, 4-5 Logs, alignment, SERT, 4-17 M Maintenance administration inspection, 2-12 alterations, 2-15 & material management responsibilities, 2-12 to 2-16 availabilities, 2-13 corrective, SERT, 4-14 to 4-15 data system, 4-21 to 4-22 field change, 2-15 to 2-16 integrated, 4-18 to 4-22 overhaul, 2-14 post-overhaul, 2-15 pre-overhaul, 2-14 scheduling, 4-19 shipyard overhaul, 2-13 testing, 3-11 upkeep period, 2-13 Management, general, 3-2 to 3-3 Material assets, 3-15 to 3-16 readiness assessment/inspection, 2-11 to 2-12, 4-12 to 4-14 MDS, 4-21 to 4-22 Messages, exercise, 5-6 Missile/gun weapons subsystem, 4-5 Monitoring, SERT, 4-15 to 4-16 N Naval gurdle support qualification, 5-4 to 5-5 Naval standards, 1-4, 1-7 NAVSEACEN combat systems readiness assistance, 4-8 NAVSTD-based publications, 1-7 NGFS, 5-4 to 5-5 0 Occupational standards, 1-4 OCCSTD-based publications, 1-6 to 1-7 Off-site/on-site training, 3-17 Operability test, 4-9 Operational evaluations, 5-2 readiness examination, 4-9 training exercises, 5-1 to 5-3 Operations, SERT, 4-11 Operator training, 5-4 Orders, types, 3-13 to 3-14 Ordnance special assistance team, 4-8 to 4-9 Organization, 2-1 to 2-2 combat systems/weapons department, 4-10 of responsibilities, 2-2 SERT, 4-9 to 4-17 OSCOT, 4-9 Overall combat systems operability test, 4-9 Overhaul, 2-13 to 2-16 P Performance inspections, 2-11 to 2-12 standards, 1-4 to 1-5 Personnel assets, 3-15 qualification standards, 1-4 to 1-5, 3-17 to 3-18 responsibilities, 2-2 Physical inspections, 2-12 Plan, integrated test, 4-9 Planned maintenance system, 4-18 to 4-20 PMS management, 4-12 program, 4-18 to 4-20 Post-overhaul, 2-15 examination, 4-9 inspection, 2-12 Pre-overhaul, 2-14 inspections, 2-12 Presentation, training, 3-19 Problems personnel, 3-10 to 3-12 six-column approach, 3-11 to 3-12 Professional updates, 1-3 Programs, training, 5-3 to 5-4 Publications combat systems, 4-2 standards based, 1-6 to 1-7 training, 3-20 Q Qualification naval gunfire support, 5-4 to 5-5 standards, personnel, 1-4 to 1-5, 3-17 to 3-18 INDEX-2

Qualification (continued) trials, 4-9 R Readiness assessment, materiel, 4-12 to 4-17 assistance, 4-8 evaluations, 5-2 examination, operational, 4-9 review, 4-8 Records, training, 3-23 to 3-24 Reference manuals, 4-2 Relationships teamwork, 3-8 w/superiors/fellow supervisors, 3-8 Responsibility to users/upper management, 3-4 to 3-5 Reports casualty, 2-8 daily fault, 4-14 eight o’clock, 2-7 to 2-8 enlisted distribution & verification, 2-6 to 2-7 equipment status, 2-8 SERT, 4-17 standard missile system firing, 5-6 Responsibilities SERT, 4-12 supervisory, 3-3 to 3-4 Restricted availability, 2-13 S Safety, 2-8 Schedules maintenance, 4-19 training, 3-20 to 3-24 Schools, 3-17 Ship reaming, 2-3 to 2-5 qualification trials, 4-9 Ship’s electronics readiness team, 4-9 to 4-17 alignment logs, 4-17 corrective maintenance management, 4-14 to 4-15 materiel readiness assessment, 4-12 to 4-14 monitoring, 4-15 to 4-16 operations, 4-11 organization, 4-9 to 4-11 PMS management, 4-12 readiness assessment reporting, 4-17 responsibilities, 4-12 test selecting & scheduling, 4-16 to 4-17 testing, 4-16 to 4-17 training, 4-9 to 4-17 Simulator/stimulators, 5-3 to 5-4 Six-column approach to problems, 3-11 to 3-12 SMS reports, 5-6 Space assets, 3-16 upkeep, 2-11 Standard missile system firing reports, 5-6 Standards, 1-3 to 1-5 equipment, 1-5 naval, 1-4, 1-7 occupational, 1-4 performance, 1-4 to 1-5 personnel qualification, 1-4 to 1-5, 3-17 to 3-18 Subsystems combat, 4-4 to 4-6 testing, 4-22 Supervision, 3-1 to 3-16 Supervisor responsibilities, 2-2 traits, 3-5 to 3-7 Supervisory responsibilities, 1-1 to 1-7 department chain, 1-2 professional update, 1-3 standards, 1-4 to 1-5 subordinates, 1-2 technical materials, 1-5 to other ratings, 1-2 training, 1-2 Support subsystem, 4-5 to 4-6 Survey inspections, 2-11 Systems testing, 4-22 T Teamwork, 3-8 Technical availability, 2-13 materials, 1-5 to 1-6 Test coordinator, 4-9 operability, 4-9 plan, integrated, 4-9 Testing maintenance, 4-22 SERT, 4-16 to 4-17 systems, 4-22 Three-M systems, 4-18 to 4-19 Training, 3-16 to 3-24 & exercises, 5-1 to 5-4 cycle, 3-21 manuals, 1-6 off-site/on-site, 3-17 operator, 5-4 presentation, 3-19 programs, 5-3 to 5-4 publications, 3-20 records, 3-20 to 3-24 responsibilities, 1-2 schedules, 3-20 to 3-24 SERT, 4-9 to 4-17 supervisory, 1-2 topics, 3-20 Traits, supervisory, 3-5 to 3-7 TYCOM inspections, 2-11 INDEX-3

U Underwater weapons subsystem, 4-5 Updates, professional, 1-3 Upkeep period, 2-13 W Weapons exercises, 5-1 to 5-7 Work package, availability, 2-14 to 2-15 INDEX-4

Assignment Questions Information: The text pages that you are to study are provided at the beginning of the assignment questions.

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ASSIGNMENT 1 Textbook Assignment: Chapter 1, “Fire Controlman Supervisor Responsibilities,” pages 1-1 through 1-8. Chapter 2, “Organization, Administration, Inspections, and Maintenance,” pages 2-1 to 2-17 Chapter 3, “Supervision and Training,” pages 3-1 to 3-16. 1-1. Advancement brings not only increased responsi- bilities but also increased rewards. 1. True 2. False 1-2. As a supervisor, you can find generalized informa- tion on your increased responsibilities in which of the following publications? 1. Military Requirements for Petty Officer First Class 2. Occupational Standards Manual for the FC Rating 3. Advancement Handbook for Petty Officers 4. PQS Manual for the FC Rating 1-3. In your career as an FC supervisor, you will be valuable in which of the following capacities? 1. Leader only 2. Trainer only 3. Technical specialist only 4. Leader, trainer, and technical specialist 1-4. As a training specialist, you will be required to conduct which of the following types of training? 1. Formal only 2. Informal only 3. Formal and informal 4. Shipboard 1-5. As a supervisor, what is your overriding responsi- bility? 1. To know your people personally 2. To ensure that your people are promoted 3. To ensure that your people are well trained 4. To take care of your people before taking care of yourself 1-6. 1-7. 1-8. 1-9. 1-10 Since your decisions as an FC supervisor affect people outside your rating, it is important that you understand their 1. career goals 2. personal problems 3. collateral interests 4. duties and responsibilities Which of the following basic knowledge require- ments is/are necessary for effective communica- tions? 1. Technical terms only 2. Your own language only 3. Standard naval terminology only 4. Technical terms, your own language, and standard naval terminology What is the basic purpose of communications? 1. Empathy 2. Listening 3. Knowledge 4. Understanding Accuracy and clarity are necessary when com- municating with which of the following groups of people? 1. Juniors only 2. Superiors only 3. Juniors and superiors 4. Civilians Which of the following standards pertain to mili- tary requirements? 1. 2. 3. 4. Naval standards Equipment standards Occupational standards Personnel qualification standards 1

1-11. Which of the following standards are rating spe- cific and are used to develop training manuals and rating advancement examinations? 1. Naval standards 2. Equipment standards 3. Occupational standards 4. Personnel qualification standards 1-12. As a supervisor, you may be responsible for your division’s PQS program. What are some of the duties within that program? 1. Training personnel within their rating only 2. Identifying personnel who are delinquent in their job qualifications only 3. Ensuring that enlisted evaluations reflect PQS accomplishments only 4. Training personnel within their rating, identi- fying personnel who are delinquent in their job qualifications, and ensuring that enlisted evaluations reflect PQS accomplishments 1-13. Which of the following types of publications is/are based on OCCSTDs? 1. Advancement study guide 2. Advancement handbooks only 3. Training manuals only 4. Advancement handbooks and training man- uals 1-14. You should be able to provide each person in your division with detailed information on material for advancement. To obtain this information, you should consult which of the following publica- tions? 1. Manual of Qualifications for Advancement 2. Advancement Handbook for the FC Rating 3. Shipboard Training Manual 4. Guide for Enlisted Qualification 1-15. An effective and efficient division organization has a relatively undefined organizational structure but has definite policies and procedures. 1. True 2. False 1-16. A sound division organization should have which of the following qualities? 1. High morale 2. Clear structure 3. Generic policies 4. Good housekeeping 1-17. The basic shipboard administrative and functional organization is prescribed by which of the follow- ing publications? 1. OPNAVINST 3120.23 2. OPNAVINST 3120.32 3. SECNAVINST 4790.5 4. SECNAVINST 5215.3 1-18. As the leading FC, you will normally be respon- sible for which of the following duties? 1. Assisting the combat systems/weapons officer only 2. Assisting the engineering officer only 3. Assisting the combat systems/weapons officer and the engineering officer 4. Supervising the preventive and corrective maintenance of equipment 1-19. Aboard ship, all personnel are assigned a general quarters station by the 1. division officer 2. commanding officer 3. combat systems officer 4. division watch, quarter, and station bill 1-20. An FC on the underway watch may leave his as- signed space only for which of the following rea- sons? 1. To assist in cleaning spaces 2. To check weather bulletins 3. To check a watch bill 4. To handle a casualty 1-21. What is the primary function of the ship manning document? 1. To ascertain excess personnel 2. To request additional manpower 3. To document manpower requirements 4. To assign billets 2

1-22. 1-23. 1-24. 1-25. 1-26. 1-27. Which of the following statements lists all the re- quired operational capabilities for a class of ship? 1. Required operational capability 2. Submarine required operational capability 3. Projected operational environment 4. Ship manning document Billet reviews are conducted periodically at which of the following levels? 1. TAO 2. CSO 3. CNO 4. CO The ship manning document has what total num- ber of sections? 1. VII 2. II 3. III 4. IV The enlisted distribution and verification report is published by what command? 1. EPMAC 2. NODAC 3. BUPERS 4. CNO The enlisted distribution and verification report has what total number of sections? 1. 12 2. 9 3. 3 4. 6 What part of the enlisted distribution and verifica- tion report covers prospective losses? 1. Section 1 2. Section 2 3. Section 3 4. Section 7 1-28. 1-29. 1-30. 1-31. 1-32. 1-33. The daily equipment status reports, given to the commanding officer by the executive officer, are known by which of the following names? 1. Casualty reports 2. Eight o’clock reports 3. Equipment reports only 4. Equipment and personnel reports The CASREP system contains what total number of report types? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four Equipment status reports are required before a ship gets under way. The requirements for these reports are normally set by which of the following persons? 1. 2. 3. 4. Commanding officer only Type commander only Commanding officer and type commander Chief of Naval Operations Most accidents directly result from some deviation from prescribed safe operating procedures. 1. True 2. False As a leading FC, your safety-related responsi- bilities may fall into which of the following areas? 1. Division responsibilities 2. Petty officer responsibilities 3. Nonelectrical rating responsibilities 4. All the above The voltage necessary to produce a fatal current is dependent on which of the following factors? 1. Body resistance 2. Type of current 3. Amount of insulation 4. Clothing worn 3

1-34. As an FC supervisor, you should be familiar with what section of the Navy Safety Precautions for Forces Afloat, OPNAVINST 5100.19? 1. D1 2. D3 3. D5 4. D7 1-35. What instruction deals with the Navy Information and Personnel Security Program? 1. OPNAVINST 3120.32 2. OPNAVINST 5510.1 3. SECNAVINST 3120.23 4. SECNAVINST 5510.1 1-36. What type of inspection is conducted to determine the material readiness of the ship’s equipment and systems? 1. INSURV 2. TYCOM 3. MAI 4. MRI 1-37. INSURV inspections for active duty ships are con- ducted at what minimal intervals? 1. Every year 2. Every 3 years 3. Every 5 years 4. Every 7 years 1-38. Material readiness inspections have what total number of types of inspections? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four 1-39. Preoverhaul tests and inspections are held approxi- mately how long before overhaul? 1. 6 months 2. 8 months 3. 10 to 12 months 4. 15 to 18 months 1-40. Regular overhauls are normally scheduled at what frequency? 1. Every 36 months 2. Every 48 months 3. Every 60 months 4. Every 72 months 1-41. Besides regular overhauls, there are what total number of availability tyes? 1. One 2. Five 3. Three 4. Four 1-42. The first scheduled overhaul is normally granted to a ship after an initial operating period of ap- proximately what length? 1. l year 2. 2 years 3. 3 years 4. 4 years 1-43. As a member of the ship’s QA team, you should be familiar with which of the following instructions? 1. COMNAVSURFLANTINST 9090.1. 2. COMNAVSURFPACINST 9109.2 3. OPNAVINST 9212,1 4. OPNAVINST 9305.7 1-44. The TYCOM finds which of the following types of ship alterations? 1. D and F 2. TIA 3. K/P 4. K 1-45. As a senior petty officer, you may be called on frequently for which of the following reasons? 1. Your technical opinion 2. Your ability to communicate 3. Your sense of responsibility 4. Your willingness to assist others4

1-46. As a supervisor, your primary job is to ensure that which of the following events occur? 1. Your personnel get liberty 2. Your technical manuals are current 3. Your work center functions smoothly 4. Your maintenance records are completed cor- rectly and on time 1-47. The requirements that must be met by the super- visor and maintenance personnel are of which of the following types? 1. Military only 2. Technical only 3. Military and technical 4. Commercial and technical 1-48. To ensure that work is completed properly and on time, the supervisor must take which of the fol- lowing steps? 1. Control the workload only 2. Organize the workload only 3. Delegate as much authority as feasible, but maintain responsibility only 4. Control and organize the workload, and dele- gate as much authority as feasible, but main- tain responsibility 1-49. When should safety be incorporated into a work plan? 1. As soon as a minor injury occurs 2. When it is directed by the safety officer 3. As soon as an unsafe procedure is noticed 4. When the work plan is in the initial stages 1-50. One of the greatest contributions you can make as a supervisor is revealed by which of the following accomplishments? 1. The development of your people 2. The morale of your work center 3. The number of training programs you sponsor 4. The extracurricular activities of your personnel 1-51. Inadequate training is often due to which of the following factors? 1. A new supervisor 2. A long sea period 3. An equipment overhaul 4. A large number of new personnel 1-52. One of the supervisor’s responsibilities is to sup- port the goals and requirements of 1. upper management only 2. subordinates only 3. peers only 4. upper management, subordinates, and peers 1-53. Loyalty, one of the most important traits a good supervisor can show, can best be demonstrated by which of the following actions? 1. Requiring the troops to cover up mistakes made by shipmates 2. Believing and practicing the maxim “loyalty encourages loyalty” 3. Maintaining a buddy-buddy relationship with the troops 4. Running a very restrictive work center 1-54. Positive thinking is a hallmark of a good leader who has which of the following characteristics? 1. Shows indifference to change 2. Talks about the way things should be 3. Goes about the work methodically 4. Looks to the future with confidence 1-55. The supervisor who stalls, puts off, evades, or re- fuses to give a decision is best described by which of the following terms? 1. A bottleneck 2. A perfectionist 3. A cautious person 4. An organizational impetus 1-56. Which of the following actions is considered an important feature in furthering cooperation with a superior? 1. Being a “yes” person to improve your image 2. Being a “no” person to prove to your boss you have a mind of your own 3. Being tactful but truthful 4. Being firm and fair 5

1-57. Which of the following traits is NOT desirable for a supervisor to show when dealing with a supe- rior? 1. Tact 2. Loyalty 3. Bluntness 4. Dependability 1-58. If your division officer gives you an assignment that is obviously a mistake, you should best handle it by which of the following methods? 1. Do it without question 2. Do it but show your feelings 3. Tell him frankly that it is a mistake 4. Ask tactfully about handling it from another angle 1-59. If you make a serious mistake, it is better to 1. ask your subordinates to say nothing 2. let your boss find out about it himself 3. tell your boss immediately 4. justify the mistake 1-60. Which of the following factors is/are usually the principal obstacle(s) to establishing a genuine co- operative spirit with fellow supervisors? 1. Job competition 2. Large work loads 3. Misunderstandings 4. Friction and jealousy 1-61. When is it most important to give credit for some- thing well done? 1. Always 2. Sometimes 3. When it is in your best interests 4. All the above 1-62. What is usually the best course of action for deal- ing with problems? 1. Face them squarely and honestly 2. Hope they will resolve themselves 3. Let your subordinates deal with them 4. Talk about them only as a last course of action 1-63. Which of the following ways are recommended for handling new crewmembers? 1. Put them at ease only 2. Show personal interest in them only 3. Give them the right point of view only 4. Put them at ease, show personal interest in them, and give them the right point of view AN EXCELLENT PROCEDURE FOR PROBLEM SOLVING IS THE SIX-COLUMN APPROACH. IN QUESTIONS 1-64 THROUGH 1-66, MATCH THE ELEMENT STATED IN THE QUESTION WITH THE SIX-COLUMN APPROACH STEP IN FIGURE 1A. 1-64. 1-65. 1-66. Figure 1A The final decision is your responsibility as leader, based on your personal evaluation of the facts and recommendations submitted. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D You are not evaluating the course of action; you are merely listing the alternatives. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D Manpower and/or materials are involved. 1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 6

1-67. Which of the following human relations factors leads to positive discipline? 1. Keeping a distance between you and your sub- ordinates 2. Maintaining authority at your level 3. Making issues of minor infractions 4. Using authority sparingly 1-68. Discipline is always positive. 1. True 2. False 1-69. By building a spirit of cooperation within your division, you establish a basis for what type of dis- cipline? 1. Self-discipline 2. Positive discipline 3. Negative discipline 4. Authoritative discipline 1-70. With most personnel, a sense of cooperative effort and teamwork is normally fostered by which of the following types of commands? 1. Request 2. Suggestion 3. Direct command 4. All the above 1-71. Which of the following statements best describes a reprimand? 1-72. Communications may be broken down into what two categories? 1. Verbal and written 2. Verbal and non-verbal 3. Internal and external 4. External and verbal 1-73. What type of assets are the most complex to man- age? 1. Material 2. Personnel 3. Equipment 4. Structural 1-74. Which of the following items are considered to be material assets that are needed to perform main- tenance roles? 1. Tools only 2. Workspaces only 3. Test equipments only 4. Tools, workspaces, and test equipments 1-75. Which of the following questions might be asked when a maintenance area is being designed? 1. Are special safety devices or safety precau- tions needed in the work center 2. Are adequate power receptacles available 3. Both 1 and 2 above 4. Are there enough eye wash stations available 1. It is constructive in nature 2. It is used as often as possible 3. It is used to get even with a person 4. It is severe to ensure discipline 7

Textbook Assignment: Chapter 3, “Supervision and Training,” pages 3-17 to 3-25. Chapter 4, “Combat Systems, Subsystems, and Maintenance,” pages 4-1 to 4-24. Chapter 5, “Weapons Exercises,” pages 5-1 to 5-7. ASSIGNMENT 2 2-1. Which of the following types of formal off-site training is usually more expensive to the govern- ment but is often the only source of training available? 1. Class A schools 2. Class C schools 3. Factory schools 4. Fleet schools 2-2. When you are giving extra training for new FCs, which of the following methods may you use? 1. Personnel qualification standards 2. Formal shipboard training 3. On-the-job training 4. All the above 2-3. Which of the following statements is characteris- tic of on-the-job training? 1. It requires the greatest amount of advance planning 2. It can be used almost any time a supervisor desires 3. It is the most time consuming 4. It is the most difficult way to train 2-4. To maintain a successful PQS program, which of the following procedures should be carried out by an FC supervisor? 1. Monitor individual qualification progress 2. Establish realistic individual qualification goals and time limits 3. Establish a program to prepare work-center supervisors as PQS qualifiers 4. All the above 2-5. When you are preparing for a formal training ses- sion, which of the following factors should you consider? 1. Class size and location 2. Class schedule and subject 3. Class length and achievement 4. Class lesson plans and schedule 2-6. What are the two primary methods of measuring class achievement? 1. Written tests and performance tests 2. Attention and participation 3. Morale and esprit de corps 4. Attendance and interest 2-7. You should never take which of the following ac- tions in a formal training session? 1. Talk down to the class 2. Talk in a lilting voice 3. Make friends with students 4. Plan class social activities 2-8. As a basis for your training program, you may use which of the following standards? 1. Occupational standards only 2. Naval standards only 3. Occupational standards and naval standards 4. Equipment standards 2-9. What is the only justification for a record of training? 1. It provides continuity to the training program by indicating what training has been done 2. It makes the supervisor look like he is doing his job 3. It aids in morale within the work group 4. It promotes cohesiveness among personnel 8

2-10. The long-range training schedule is the frame- work for preparing which of the following sched- ules? 1. Monthly training schedules 2. Quarterly forecast of evolutions 3. Weekly training schedules 4. Quarterly forecast of evolutions and weekly training schedules 2-11. For training purposes, the work week is based on what total number of hours? 1. 30 2. 35 3. 36 4. 40 2-12. To develop weekly training, the supervisor should first look at which of the following docu- ments ? 1. Quarterly training schedule 2. Availability schedule 3. Operating schedule 4. Watch bill 2-13. The weekly training schedule should provide which of the following types of training? 1. All-hands training only 2. Military training only 3. All-hands and military training only 4. All-hands, military, and professional training 2-14. To standardize record keeping for training, the CNO has developed a total of how many forms that you may use? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four 2-15. Of the CNO-developed forms for training, what form is reserved for scheduling instructional per- iods ? 2-16. In current shipboard practice, which of the fol- lowing personnel has the responsibility for all the subsystems of a combat system? 1. Combat systems/weapons officer 2. Electronics material officer 3. Tactical action officer 4. Operations officer 2-17. In some ship configurations, which of the follow- ing resources would the engineering department possibly supply? 1. Heating systems 2. Alternating power 3. Gyro distribution 4. Maintenance personnel 2-18. When you are training personnel in the operation of combat systems equipment aboard ships, which of the following reference manuals is vital? 1. Combat Systems Training Requirements Manual 2. Personnel Qualifcations Requirements Man- ual 3. Occupational Standards Manual 4. 3-M Systems Manual 2-19. The CSTOM is a reference for which of the fol- lowing topics? 1. The training of new personnel 2. The NEC requirements for your class of ship 3. The integration of systems and subsystems 4. The ship’s overhaul requirements 2-20. Which of the following information is provided by the CDS subsystem? 1. Integration, control, monitoring, and tactical employment of own ship 2. Analysis of radiated electromagnetic energy 3. Blanking pulses to prevent emitter interfer- ence 4. Communications control for the ship 1. Type I 2. Type II 3. Type III 4. Type IV 9

2-21. The CDS is composed of which of the following major equipment groups? 1. Electronic attack 2. Electronic countermeasures 3. Data display and transmitting 4. Data processing, display, and communica- tions 2-22. The ACM group has which of the following major components? 1. Torpedo countermeasures transmitting set 2. Electronic countermeasures set 3. Data-processing display 4. Blanker-video mixer 2-23. To employ against an air threat that has pene- trated the ship’s primary defense envelope, what would normally be the primary choice of weapon subsystem? 1. MK-92 fire-control subsystem 2. Close-in weapons subsystem 3. Harpoon subsystem 4. Chaff 2-24. The missile/gun weapons subsystem onboard an FFG 7-class ship supports which of the following missions? 1. AAW, ASUW, and ASW 2. ASW, ASUW, and ASM 3. ASM, ASf, and AAW 4. ASW, ASM, and AST 2-25. What is the primary missile used against a sur- face threat? 1. SM1 2. Harm 3. Harrier 4. Harpoon 2-26. The combat systems test and evaluation program has what total number of basic purposes? 1. One 2.Two 3. Three 4. Four 2-27. What are the specific objectives of the CSTEP? 1. Maintenance and administration 2. Overhaul planning, combat readiness, and personnel planning 3. Overhaul planning, overhaul, and administra- tion 4. Maintenance, overhaul planning, overhaul, post-overhaul, and combat readiness 2-28. Which of the following specific actions may be taken by a group commander’s combat systems coordinating support team? 1. Assisting in conducting OCSOT 2. Evaluating the ship’s self-defense force 3. Evaluating the ship’s electronic readiness team 4. Instructing personnel in equipment mainte- nance 2-29. The purpose of the NAVSEACEN is to provide the assistance necessary to further self-reliance of the ship by improving which of the following ele- ments? 1. Operational readiness of installed ordnance 2. Identification of ship encounters 3. Pre-overhaul assessments 4. Equipment maintenance 2-30. The combat systems readiness review is essential to the ship for which of the following reasons? 1. To assist in correcting material problems 2. To evaluate the SERT’s effectiveness 3. To review the combat systems administrative support 4. To assist in the combat systems pre-overhaul assessment 2-31. Ordnance equipment includes which of the fol- lowing systems? 1. Gun battery only 2. Underwater battery only 3. Gunfire control only 4. Gun battery, underwater battery, and gunfire control 10

2-32. The combat systems operational readiness exam- ination has a total of how many phases? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four 2-33. The CSPOE provides prerequisite testing and preparation for which of the following elements? 1. CSCST 2. CSSQT 3. CSRR 4. CART 2-34. The overall combat systems operability test is what type of PMS test? 1. Level 1 2. Level 2 3. Level 3 4. Level 4 2-35. Detailed procedures for conducting all combat systems tests through the systems level during overhaul are established in the 1. CSIP 2. CSSQT 3. OSCOT 4. CSITP 2-36. The combat systems test coordinator is respon- sible for coordinating which of the following items? 1. The complete overhaul package 2. All testing with the shipyard 3. All testing outside the shipyard 4. All PMS testing 2-37. Administratively, the SERT reports directly to which of the following officers? 1. Combat systems/weapons officer 2. Systems testing officer 3. Commanding officer 4. Executive officer 2-38. What is the basic reference used by the SERT team? 1. SORM 2. CSTP 3. CSTOM 4. CSCST 2-39. SERT members should have a working knowl- edge in which of the following areas? 1. PMS philosophy 2. Logistics support 3. Maintenance data system 4. All the above 2-40. The duties of the SERT team members are con- sidered to be of which of the following types? 1. Primary 2. Secondary 3. Collateral 4. Extracurricular 2-41. The SERT is responsible for coordinating pre- ventive and corrective maintenance of the combat systems/weapons department. 1. True 2. False 2-42. In what condition should SERT members be as- signed as roving evaluators? 1. I 2. II 3. III 4. IV 2-43. Each inport duty section should have assigned at least how many SERT members? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four 11

2-44. The responsibilities of the SERT are broadly de- fined by which of the following terms? 1. Operational training guidance only 2. Maintenance management only 3. Readiness assessment only 4. Operational training guidance, maintenance management, and readiness assessment 2-45. The SERT material readiness assessment is di- rected toward which of the following major mis- sion areas? 1. ASM 2. ASW 3. ASMD 4. ASMDS 2-46. Readiness assessment uses which of the follow- ing basic types of techniques? 1. Qualitative only 2. Quantitative only 3. Qualitative and quantitative 4. Quantitative and performance 2-47. Which of the following readiness assigned after an assessment? 1. Substantially combat-ready 2. Marginally combat-ready 3. Not combat-ready 4. All the above criteria is/are 2-48. What are the two basic SERT corrective mainte- nance categories? 1. Fault isolation and corrective maintenance 2. Fault isolation and preventive maintenance 3. Testing and corrective maintenance 4. Testing and fault isolation 2-49. As a measurement of personnel readiness, which of the following techniques should be used? 1. PMS tests only 2. Simulators or computer programs only 3. Monitoring of ship or fleet exercises only 4. PMS tests, simulators or computer programs, and monitoring of ship or fleet exercises 2-50. In which of the techniques must the hardware be operating properly? 1. PMS tests 2. Monitoring of ship or fleet exercises 3. Simulators or computer programs 4. All the above 2-51. The SERT has the knowledge and training capa- bility to assist the ship’s training officer in iden- tifying the topics and content necessary for training enlisted personnel only. 1. True 2. False 2-52. The integrated approach to testing is based on which of the following actions? 1. Defining PMS 2. Defining fictional test requirements 3. Defining personnel requirements 4. All the above 2-53. After a readiness assessment has been completed, the readiness status should be reported by using which of the following methods? 1. Verbal report 2. Summary report 3. Message report 4. Detailed report 2-54. During PMS activities and exercises, the respon- sibility for determining mechanical and electrical alignments of interrelated combat systems func- tions lies with which of the following entities? 1. TAO 2. SERT 3. CSRR team 4. Combat systems/weapons officer 2-55. Combat systems integrated maintenance is based on a comprehensive schedule of tests performed at what total number of supporting levels? 1. One 2. Two 3. Three 4. Four 12

2-56. What manual sets forth an effective PMS and assigns PMS management responsibility? 1. OPNAVINST 4970.4 2. OPNAVINST 4790.4 3. OPNAVINST 4770.4 4. OPNAVINST 4490.7 2-57. Shipboard maintenance falls into three categor- ies. Assistance from outside the ship is required by which of the following maintenance-level categories? 1. Organization 2. Intermediate only 3. Depot only 4. Intermediate and depot 2-58. The goal of PMS is minimal operational effi- ciency of all equipments and the reduction of equipment downtime, maintenance man-hours, and maintenance costs. 1. True 2. False 2-59. Which of the following phrases best describes the primary ingredients of the PMS program? 1. The description of the methods, materials, tools, and personnel required for mainte- nance only 2. The scheduling and control of maintenance task performance only 3. The systems fault-isolation procedures only 4. The description of the methods, tools, and personnel required for maintenance; the scheduling and control of the maintenance task performance; and the systems fault- isolation procedures 2-60. Which of the following schedules should be posted in the working area of each maintenance group? 1. Quarterly 2. Monthly 3. Weekly 4. Cycle 2-61. The maintenance data system provides which of the following means? 1. Recording maintenance actions 2. Taking stock of inventory 3. Requesting repairs 4. Isolating faults 2-62. Combat systems testing is conducted at which of the following levels? 1. Division, components, and systems 2. Components, subsystems, and equipments 3. Equipments, systems, and subsystems 4. Department, systems, and components 2-63. After fault isolation has led to corrective action, the next sequence of the combat systems testing procedure is which of the following actions? 1. Verifying the function that was previously faulty 2. Putting the equipment systems back on line for regular use 3. Conducting a complex and extensive test of the entire combat systems 4. Shipping the equipment to other ships for use 2-64. Which of the following programs are used to train combat systems personnel? 1. Ship and fleet operational training exercises only 2. Training programs and simulators/stimula- tors only 3. Test programs and procedures only 4. Ship and fleet operational training exercises, training programs and simulators/stimulators, and test programs and procedures 2-65. Which of the following broad objectives per- tain(s) to all readiness and operational evaluation exercises? 1. To provide specialized predeployment train- ing for anticipated fleet operations only 2. To develop and test new tactics and doctrine only 3. To provide specialized predeployment for anticipated fleet operations and to develop and test new tactics and doctrine 4. To minimize formal reporting of exercises 13

2-66. Which of the following overall goals pertain(s) to composite training unit exercises? 1. To provide predeployment training 2. To test and evaluate new doctrine and proce- dures 3. To stimulate development of new concepts in naval warfare 4. All the above 2-67. Which of the following fleet exercise publica- tions would assist you in NGFS training? 1. FXP 1 2. FXP 2 3. FXP 3 4. FXP 4 2-68. Each fleet exercise publication contains safety procedures and exercise evaluation procedures. 1. True 2. False 2-69. Which of the following publications outlines the requirements for training exercises and inspec- tions that ensure high battle readiness? 1. OPNAVINST 3590.11 2. OPNAVINST 3230.11 3. CINCLANTFLTINST 3590.11 4. CINCLANTFLTINST 3230.11 2-70. Combat systems team training may be accom- plished by using a variety of simulation/stimula- tion systems. What can these systems simulate for real-time testing, training, and evaluation? 1. Data only 2. Responses only 3. Commands only 4. Data, responses, and commands 2-71. Generally, which of the following ships must maintain NGFS qualification? 1. Gunnery ships 2. Combatant ships 3. Ships assigned shore bombardment 4. Ships with 5-inch-caliber and larger guns 2-72. NGFS qualification maybe terminated for which of the following reasons? 1. When a ship commits a serious safety viola- tion only 2. When a ship fires unsatisfactorily during a major exercise only 3. When a ship commits a serious safety viola- tion or when a ship fires unsatisfactorily dur- ing a major exercise 4. When the NGFS team has changed by at least 30 percent 2-73. NGFS exercises in progress may be aborted for which of the following reasons? 1. Commanding officer’s discretion 2. NGFS team not manned 3. Ammunition malfunction 4. Both 2 and 3 above 2-74. When a missile-firing exercise is being con- ducted, data extraction should begin at what spe- cific point? 1. 10 seconds before director assign 2. Immediately upon director designation 3. 10 seconds before launcher assign 4. Immediately upon director lock on 2-75. Normally, a missile firing report is required to be filed within what maximum time after a ship’s operational exercise? 1. l day 2. 2 days 3. 3 days 4. 4 days 14